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nille40
Dec8-03, 01:41 PM
Hi all!
I was wondering which method one should use to find the actual sum of an infinite series. I know how to find the sum of a geometric series (if it converges), but how could I find the sum for, for instance

\sum_{n=0}^\infty\left(\frac{n+5}{5n+1}\right)^n


I know that it converges, and the sum appears to be 2. But how can I calculate this?

Or how about

\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{\cos n\pi}{1+n^2}


Thanks in advance,
Nille

HallsofIvy
Dec8-03, 03:38 PM
There is no general method for determining the sum of an infinite series.

himanshu121
Dec8-03, 09:57 PM
What if we try to find the sum to n terms and then taking lim n\rightarrow\infty

Derivative86
Dec9-03, 12:06 AM
The answer to the first one is 2.5746952396343726343 [a)] Hope that will help

suyver
Dec9-03, 02:54 AM
The second one is a defined convergent series:

\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{\cos n\pi}{1+n^2}=\frac12\left(1+\pi{\rm csch}(\pi)\right)

where csch(z) gives the hyperbolic cosecant of z, or in other words: csch(z)=1/sinh(z).

himanshu121
Dec9-03, 03:05 AM
How You guys reach this conclusions I have read a little about convergence and divergence but don't know how you summed up the series

laura
Dec13-03, 02:58 AM
Originally posted by nille40

\sum_{n=0}^\infty\frac{\cos n\pi}{1+n^2}


This one does not involve hyperbolic trig functions.

Taylor series.

HallsofIvy
Dec13-03, 07:14 AM
laura: would you mind explaining further? Since the sum, as written, is clearly not a Taylor series, do you mean that it can be converted to one and then summed? If so, how? It's certainly not obvious to me!