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Jess1986
Mar28-06, 03:02 PM
Show that m(2r'a' +ra'')=0 can be rewritten as md/dt(r^2*a')=0

Has anyone got any tips on how i should go about this?? Thanks x
Doc Al
Mar28-06, 03:19 PM
Use the product rule to take the derivative.
TolsePhy
Mar28-06, 04:50 PM
it's trivial. you can jump to the solution directly.