View Full Version : Easy multivariable derivative
malawi_glenn
Aug8-07, 02:18 AM
I am repeting some multivariable calculus.
I want to know if have done right now:
\mathbf{r} = \mathbf{r}(q_1, q_2, q_3)
\dfrac{\partial \mathbf{r}}{\partial q_1} = \left(\dfrac{\partial r_1}{\partial q_1} , \dfrac{\partial r_2}{\partial q_1} , \dfrac{\partial r_3}{\partial q_1} \right)
let
\mathbf{r} = (q_1 + 2q_3, q_2 + 3q_1 - q_3, q_1 - q_3)
\dfrac{\partial \mathbf{r}}{\partial q_1} = (1,3,1)
HallsofIvy
Aug8-07, 05:14 AM
If I understand what your problem is correctly- that r is a three dimensional vector function of 3 variables, then, yes, your answer is correct.
malawi_glenn
Aug8-07, 05:55 AM
thanx dude!
How about this one?
\dfrac{d}{d\theta}\left( \dfrac{d\theta}{dt}\right) = 0 \text{ ?}
CompuChip
Aug8-07, 07:42 AM
Yes. What about it? What is \theta? And what is the question?
malawi_glenn
Aug8-07, 07:44 AM
theta is a function, and I am wondering if
\dfrac{d}{d\theta}\left( \dfrac{d\theta}{dt}\right) = 0 \text{ ?}
Is correct in this case: i forgot to post the link.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Lagrangian_mechanics
I am trying to figure out what is happening in "Pendulum on a movable support"
According to information presented in the link
you are right
\dfrac{d\theta}{dt} is only function of t so derivativee w.r.t. theta is 0
malawi_glenn
Aug8-07, 08:22 AM
great thanx! Have not done calculus for a while, so I am repeting a bit before next semester=)
HallsofIvy
Aug8-07, 11:58 AM
No, that is not true.
In general, if \theta is a function of t and f is any function of \theta then it is also a function of t and
\frac{df}{d\theta}= \frac{df}{dt}\frac{dt}{d\theta}
In particular, if f= d\theta /dt then
\frac{d}{dt}\frac{d\theta}{dt}= \frac{d^2\theta}{dt^2}\frac{dt}{d\theta}
which is not necessarily 0.
To take an easy example, if \theta= e^t then
\frac{d\theta}{dt}= e^t= \theta[/itex]
so that
[tex]\frac{d}{d\theta}\frac{d\theta}{dt}= \frac{d\theta}{d\theta}= 1
Right but
In the link L is function of theta, theta- dot and t
So for L at least
\frac{\partial}{\partial\theta}\left( \dfrac{d\theta}{dt}\right) = 0
is true
I have considered the lagrangian and was not carefull:blushing:
thanks
HallsofIvy
Aug8-07, 04:35 PM
Try being careful!
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