This is the equation of heat conduction in my PDE textbook:
\int ^{t_{2}}_{t_{1}} \int\int\int_{A} [c \rho \frac{\partial u}{\partial t} - \nabla \dot \left( k \nabla u \right)]dxdydzdt = 0.
where c is specific heat, rho is density, A is the subregion bounded by a smooth closed surface S with exterior unit normal n.
this integrand is continuous and valid for all subregions A and all intervals t1,t2, it follows that the integrand must be zero for all (x,y,z) in Ω, where Ω is the interior of a body.
Can someone please explain this further? It probably involves some obscure Calculus theorems.
TIA
Somefantastik
Aug27-08, 09:46 AM
let the integrand be f(x) for brevity's sake
I ended up going this route:
let f(x) > 0
since an integral is just a sum and the sum of all positive values is always positive, then the integral must > 0.
let f(x) < 0
blah blah blah, sum of all negative values is always negative, then the integral must be < 0
therefore, f(x) = 0 (identically)
That's how I went about solving that problem but I was sort of hoping for a more robust explanation than that.
statdad
Aug27-08, 11:47 AM
Your ideas would work if you could be sure the integrand were always positive (negative), but you need to have some proof of that - do you have any?
Is the surface insulated, or isolated, so that no heat flows in our out?
Somefantastik
Aug27-08, 03:18 PM
The book doesn't say, which is what makes me think it's some Cal trick from somewhere. The hint is to let f be positive at some point P and then f acts like some ball centered at P. I'm not sure what that is hinting to; I thought I did but now I'm not sure.
statdad
Aug27-08, 03:37 PM
The hint is to let f be positive at some point P and then f acts like some ball centered at P.
Just a thought - some details I left nebulous on purpose, so you can
investigate/justify them.
if you can assume that f is positive at some point \mathcal{P} , in the interior of the region, since f is continuous throughout you know there is a small ball \mathcal{B} centered at \mathcal{P} in which f is positive. Since the integral is identically zero for all regions, it is zero over \mathcal{B} . Since \mathcal{P} is arbitrary, you can conclude ... (fill in the rest)
Somefantastik
Aug27-08, 03:40 PM
stupid question-
Why do I "know" there is a positive ball B centered at point P?
statdad
Aug27-08, 04:24 PM
"Why do I "know" there is a positive ball B centered at point P?"
Well, if I understand the problem, and remember my multi-var analysis well enough, since the integrand is continuous throughout the region of integration, the fact that it is positive at a point \mathcal{P} means that there must be a small open set, which is an open ball in several dimensions, in which the integrand is always positive. If that's the case, all else follows (I hope).