Why should the action be Lorentz invariant? [Archive]

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pellman

Jul31-09, 01:20 PM

Why should the action be Lorentz invariant? Every time I come across this it is assumed by the author without qualification. As too obvious to explain maybe? Ain't obvious to me.

AstroRoyale

Jul31-09, 04:14 PM

http://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?t=193613

See also Greiner Chapter 2 of Field Quantization

pellman

Jul31-09, 05:16 PM

i get it now. Thanks.