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sauravrt
Oct22-09, 02:35 PM
I came across this approximation in a book. I am not sure why this approximation is valid..

\frac{1}{N}\sum_{n=0}^{N-1}n.sin[4\pi f_o n + 2\phi] \approx 0

f_o is not near 0 or 1/2

Saurav

MikeyW
Oct22-09, 04:57 PM
Perhaps it's because you are averaging over a sin function, which has average 0?

CRGreathouse
Oct22-09, 05:46 PM
Pretty much. Unless something funny is going on, the positives and the negatives should pretty well cancel out.

If it is -- if you manage to get sin = 1 at each point -- you can get as high as (N - 1)/2. But for randomly-chosen f_0 and phi, I'd expect to get something pretty small. Maybe not O(N^(-1/2)), but certainly o(1).