View Full Version : limits involving natural exponential2
synergix
Nov3-09, 11:14 PM
1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data
lim(e-2x cosx)
x-> infinity
3. The attempt at a solution
I thought right away that the limit would not exist because of cos x oscillating the function between + and - but the answer in the book says zero. I need help figuring out why my thinking was incorrect.
-1<=cos(x)<=1. Whether there's a limit depends on what e^(-2x) does. What does it do? For a proof think about using the squeeze theorem.
lanedance
Nov3-09, 11:26 PM
think about what happens to the negative exponential as x gets large, and maybe try a squeeze theorem
synergix
Nov3-09, 11:28 PM
e^(-2x) will get very small.
synergix
Nov3-09, 11:31 PM
well it will still be oscillating but approaching zero all the same I suppose
e^(-2x) will get very small.
Ok, so what's you conclusion? And why?
well it will still be oscillating but approaching zero all the same I suppose
That's fine, if you don't have to prove it and omit the 'I suppose'.
synergix
Nov3-09, 11:36 PM
How would I apply the squeeze theorem to this problem?
How would I apply the squeeze theorem to this problem?
Can you find two functions f(x) and g(x) such that f(x)<=cos(x)e^(-2x)<=g(x) such that f(x) and g(x) both approach zero? Possibly using -1<=cos(x)<=1?
synergix
Nov4-09, 12:04 AM
Because
-1<=cos(x)<=1
-e-2x <= cos(x)e-2x <= e-2x
is that it? I just emulated what I have seen on a few math help sites. But it makes sense now that I have thought it out a bit.
soo
lim -e-2x=0=lim e -2x
x->infinity x->infinity
so
lim cos(x)e-2x=0
x->infinity
Because
-1<=cos(x)<=1
-e-2x <= cos(x)e-2x <= e-2x
is that it? I just emulated what I have seen on a few math help sites. But it makes sense now that I have thought it out a bit.
soo
lim -e-2x=0=lim e -2x
x->infinity x->infinity
so
lim cos(x)e-2x=0
x->infinity
Brilliant. A little emulation goes a long way.
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