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synergix
Nov3-09, 11:14 PM
1. The problem statement, all variables and given/known data

lim(e-2x cosx)
x-> infinity

3. The attempt at a solution

I thought right away that the limit would not exist because of cos x oscillating the function between + and - but the answer in the book says zero. I need help figuring out why my thinking was incorrect.

Dick
Nov3-09, 11:24 PM
-1<=cos(x)<=1. Whether there's a limit depends on what e^(-2x) does. What does it do? For a proof think about using the squeeze theorem.

lanedance
Nov3-09, 11:26 PM
think about what happens to the negative exponential as x gets large, and maybe try a squeeze theorem

synergix
Nov3-09, 11:28 PM
e^(-2x) will get very small.

synergix
Nov3-09, 11:31 PM
well it will still be oscillating but approaching zero all the same I suppose

Dick
Nov3-09, 11:31 PM
e^(-2x) will get very small.

Ok, so what's you conclusion? And why?

Dick
Nov3-09, 11:32 PM
well it will still be oscillating but approaching zero all the same I suppose

That's fine, if you don't have to prove it and omit the 'I suppose'.

synergix
Nov3-09, 11:36 PM
How would I apply the squeeze theorem to this problem?

Dick
Nov3-09, 11:42 PM
How would I apply the squeeze theorem to this problem?

Can you find two functions f(x) and g(x) such that f(x)<=cos(x)e^(-2x)<=g(x) such that f(x) and g(x) both approach zero? Possibly using -1<=cos(x)<=1?

synergix
Nov4-09, 12:04 AM
Because
-1<=cos(x)<=1

-e-2x <= cos(x)e-2x <= e-2x

is that it? I just emulated what I have seen on a few math help sites. But it makes sense now that I have thought it out a bit.

soo

lim -e-2x=0=lim e -2x
x->infinity x->infinity

so

lim cos(x)e-2x=0
x->infinity

Dick
Nov4-09, 12:07 AM
Because
-1<=cos(x)<=1

-e-2x <= cos(x)e-2x <= e-2x

is that it? I just emulated what I have seen on a few math help sites. But it makes sense now that I have thought it out a bit.

soo

lim -e-2x=0=lim e -2x
x->infinity x->infinity

so

lim cos(x)e-2x=0
x->infinity

Brilliant. A little emulation goes a long way.