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Imparcticle
Jul17-04, 01:50 AM
If multiverse theory is true, then there are multiple universes. "Universe" means "all that exists" or "all that there is". So there can't really be multiple "universes"; rather, would it not make better sense to say that there are subuniverses and therefore say that we are in a subuniverse (to be specific)?

Vast
Jul17-04, 04:22 AM
Well in a cyclic model, there exists one universe, which undergoes a seemingly infinite number of contractions and bounces, so what we see as a beginning at the big bang was actually preceded by a prior cycle.

http://wwwphy.princeton.edu/~steinh/dm2004.pdf