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sunshine111
Feb4-10, 07:13 AM
Hello,
I have a question......
if there is 1 man with 6 ft height in 500 people. What will be the probability to find men with 6 ft in europe(say) or if I say like this......there is 1 man with 6 ft height in 500 people, what is the percentage of 6 ft high men in Europe.


Its a stupid question, but I would like to know the way it is calculated in psychological studies when they make statistics.
Thank you.

Mark44
Feb4-10, 06:21 PM
Assuming that men's heights are distributed in Europe in the same way (i.e., 1 6-foot man per 500 people), the percentage of 6 ft. men in Europe would be 1/500 = .2/100 = 0.2%.

On the other hand, there are probably many more 6-footers per 500 people than you assumed, especially in some of the northern European countries. For example, the average height of a male in Germany is 5 ft. 10 in., and the Netherlands, it is between 5 ft. 10 in. and 6 ft (different groups have different averages). This means that for Dutch males, about half would be shorter than 6 ft. and about half would be taller. That's a long way from 1 person in 500.