View Full Version : orthochronous transformations?
myleo727
Oct26-10, 10:14 PM
How can one show that if det A = 1 and the 00th component of A > = 1 then A preserves the sign of the time component of time-like vectors? thanks!
Hint: write out the terms of the time component of the transformed vector. You need to show this doesn't change sign.
A helpful relation is:
\Lambda^\mu_{\ \alpha}\Lambda^\nu_{\ \beta}\eta^{\alpha\beta}=\eta^{\mu\nu}
Fredrik
Oct27-10, 08:10 AM
Use the definition of matrix multiplication on (\Lambda x)_{00} (row 0, column 0 of the matrix \Lambda x). (Forget you ever even heard of tensors. This problem involves matrices and their components, nothing else). You need to translate the assumption that x is timelike to a relationship between its components, and use it.
I think you also need to know what I said about the velocity of a Lorentz transformation in this post (http://www.physicsforums.com/showthread.php?p=2082559). If you don't, you're going to have to prove algebraically that this velocity is <1 (using the condition in Daverz's post, which I prefer to write as \Lambda^T\eta\Lambda=\eta).
You also need to understand the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality for vectors in \mathbb R^3 with the standard inner product.
If you get stuck, show us where.
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