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Alan Tua
Oct31-04, 03:39 PM
Hi , I'd like to know if anybody could help me understand the following: I was following the following derivation of the Lorentz transformations (http://vishnu.mth.uct.ac.za/omei/gr/chap1/node4.html) and i managed to understand everything except possibly the most crucial step....how does one get the transformations: c(tbar)=(ipsilon)ct+(Beta)x and xbar=(lambda)ct+(delta)x ??? ... i m an A level student with pure maths and physics (here in malta we only do 2 subjects at a level :mad: ) if any body could explain to me how one gets to the transformations or from where to find an explanation i d be super-grateful...thanks

jcsd
Oct31-04, 03:48 PM
The equations you refer to are just genralized linear transformation. We know that the trnafomrtaions that we have to find must be of this form, so it's just a case of finding the unknowns.

Also, it's not upsilon it's gamma.

robphy
Oct31-04, 08:46 PM
On a side note, the "worldline of particle moving with speed v<c" on
http://vishnu.mth.uct.ac.za/omei/gr/chap1/node4.html
is incorrect. The tangents in the first part of the worldline are incorrectly drawn as spacelike.

Alan Tua
Nov1-04, 03:32 AM
Hi, thanks for such a quick reply....i got it now,,, thanks again