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(ax+by)^2 \leq ax^2+by^2 for every a,b which satisfy 0\leq a,b\leq1 and a+b=1.
My book consider this as trivial however I have hard time to prove this, will appreciate your help.
Mentallic
Jul8-11, 05:32 AM
Expand the left side, let b=1-a and simplify. See if you can convert all factors involving a into a2-a :wink:
I have tried many things including this one, how should I approach these kind of problems?
What is the intuition? Is the solution process of these kind of problems really involves trial and error method or I miss something?
Eventually i came to this nasty prove:
ax^2+by^2-(ax+by)^2=ax^2+by^2-a^2x^2-2abxy-b^2y^2=(a-a^2)x^2-2abxy+(b-b^2)y^2=(a-a^2)x^2-2(a-a^2)xy+(b-b^2)y^2=(a-a^2)[(x-y)^2-y^2]+(b-b^2)y^2=
(a-a^2)(x-y)^2+y^2[b-b^2+a^2-a]=(a-a^2)(x-y)^2+y^2[2ab] \geq 0
Is there a more efficient approaches to such problems?
Mentallic
Jul9-11, 02:39 AM
Yes, use the fact that a+b=1, thus b=1-a. Use this conversion early on.
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