Can A or B be finite if A cross B is not the empty set?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the properties of sets A and B in relation to their Cartesian product A cross B, specifically questioning whether either set can be finite if their product is not empty. Participants explore the implications of this relationship within set theory.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Mixed

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Some participants express skepticism about the possibility of proving that A or B must be finite, citing examples such as the Cartesian product of real numbers. Others suggest that a single counterexample could invalidate the original statement. There are inquiries about the clarity of the problem statement and its implications.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants sharing their thoughts on the validity of the original claim and questioning the completeness of the information provided. Some have offered counterexamples, while others express confusion about the requirements of the proof.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the problem may be misinterpreted, suggesting that the question could have been framed differently to clarify the intended proof. There is a consensus that the lack of information about the nature of sets A and B complicates the discussion.

physicsuser
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sets A and B. A cross B not equals the empty set. Prove that A or B is finite.

I think that you can't... don't ask me for my work because I have none.
 
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physicsuser said:
I think that you can't

I agree.

The regular x,y coordinate system is a cross product of real numbers. Each ordered pair is an element of the cross product and it is not the empty set and yet set A = set B and set A is not finite.
 
If anyone thinks that it can be proved, then just say that it can be and give me a hint in the right direction please.

Thanks for peeking in.
 
physicsuser said:
If anyone thinks that it can be proved, then just say that it can be and give me a hint in the right direction please.

Thanks for peeking in.

I thought I just gave you a counter example. Your statement is basically a universally quantified statement for sets, unless I am reading it wrong, and so just a single counter example is sufficient to prove that it is not true. You cannot prove something is true if it is not true. I am not a expert on set theory but in this case it seems pretty straight foreword, no?

Best of luck...
 
Townsend said:
I thought I just gave you a counter example. Your statement is basically a universally quantified statement for sets, unless I am reading it wrong, and so just a single counter example is sufficient to prove that it is not true. You cannot prove something is true if it is not true. I am not a expert on set theory but in this case it seems pretty straight foreword, no?

Best of luck...

Sorry, but I am a total noob with sets. I see it as, if they ask you to prove something then it must be true; atleast it was true for all the other question.

As for this question I think that there is not enough info to conclude anything about A or B besides that none of them is an empty set. :confused: I've reread the set section and there is nothing about what makes a set finite(I do know what a finite set is).
 
physicsuser said:
Sorry, but I am a total noob with sets. I see it as, if they ask you to prove something then it must be true; atleast it was true for all the other question.

As for this question I think that there is not enough info to conclude anything about A or B besides that none of them is an empty set. :confused: I've reread the set section and there is nothing about what makes a set finite(I do know what a finite set is).

If the question said

A cross B is not the empty set, prove that there exist at least one case where set A or set B is finite, then you could but prove there is at least one case by showing one example. No problem

A={x,y} and B={r,s}

So A cross B is just

{(x,r),(x,s),(y,r),(y,s)}

QED.

But your question asked in us to prove this is true for all sets A and B. How can you prove something that is not true?

I think you must have the question wrong because it really does not make much sense. I bet it asked to prove that if A or B is finite then A cross B is finite. Maybe you could look at the question one more time and make sure you got it right.

Best of luck
 

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