Expectation value, harmonic oscillator

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around finding the expectation values of the position-momentum product \( \langle xp \rangle \) and \( \langle px \rangle \) for the nth energy eigenstate in a one-dimensional harmonic oscillator. Participants are exploring the implications of their calculations and the properties of the operators involved.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the use of ladder operators to express the position and momentum operators, questioning the nature of the resulting expectation values. There is a focus on the hermiticity of the operators and the implications of obtaining a complex value for \( \langle xp \rangle \).

Discussion Status

The conversation is active, with participants sharing their expressions for the operators and questioning the validity of their results. Some guidance is provided regarding the use of ladder operators, and there is an acknowledgment of differing expressions for the product of position and momentum.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the complexities of quantum mechanics, particularly the properties of operators and their expectation values. There is an emphasis on ensuring that the derived expressions align with the expected physical properties of the system.

broegger
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Hi,

I have to find the expectation values of xp and px for nth energy eigenstate in the 1-d harmonic oscillator. If I know <xp> I can immediately find <px>since [x,p]=ih. I use the ladder operators [tex]a_{\pm}=\tfrac1{\sqrt{2\hslash m\omega}}(\mp ip+m\omega x)[/tex] to find <xp>, but I get a complex value, <xp>=ih/2. It doesn't seem right in the context of the rest of the exercise...
 
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Why not...?Why should it be real...?:wink:

Daniel.
 
What's your expression for xp in terms of the ladder operators?
 
Well, xp is not hermitian, I see your point, dexter. My expression for xp is [tex]i\hslash/2({a_+}^2 + {a_-}^2 + 1)[/tex].
 
Could I be so bold as to ask how you got that expression for xp ?
 
I got it. I convert p to ladder operators using this formula:

[tex]\hat a_\pm=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2mh\omega}}(m\omega \hat x \mp i\hat p)[/tex]

Just isolate p. Then we use this formula for x in ladder operators:

[tex]\hat{x}=\sqrt{\frac{\hbar}{2m\omega}}(\hat a_++\hat a_-)[/tex]

Then we simply multiply x and p.

But what i get is a little bit different than above:

[tex]\hat x \hat p=\frac{i\hbar}{2}(\hat a_+^2-\nf\hat a_-^2+1)[/tex]

(note the - in the last formula)

But the final result is the same
[tex]<\hat x \hat p> = \frac{i\hbar}{2}[/tex]
 

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