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If a set "C" can contain any subset of a set "A", then is "A" itself a subset of (or equal to) "C" ??


In set theory, if set "C" contains every subset of set "A", then set "A" is indeed a subset of set "C". This conclusion is based on the definition of subsets, where a set that contains all subsets of another set must also include all elements of that set. Therefore, if "C" has every proper subset of "A", it necessarily contains all elements of "A".
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