Verifying Inner Product Properties on a Circle Function

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around verifying the properties of an inner product defined for continuous functions on the circle, specifically examining the expression (f,g) = ∫₀^{π} fg* dt. Participants are questioning whether this definition satisfies the properties of an inner product.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to verify three properties of the inner product, while others question the definitions of the functions involved, particularly regarding the nature of complex conjugation and the limits of integration.

Discussion Status

Participants are exploring different interpretations of the problem, including the implications of the integral limits and the definitions of the functions. Some have raised questions about the assumptions made in the original post, but no consensus has been reached regarding the correctness of the inner product definition.

Contextual Notes

There is a noted concern about the integral being limited to the range from 0 to π, despite the functions being defined on the entire unit circle. This raises questions about the completeness of the problem setup.

quasar987
Science Advisor
Homework Helper
Gold Member
Messages
4,796
Reaction score
32
Hi guys, there's a problem to which me and my pals just can't seem to get an answer that is congruent the answer on the back of the book. The homwork is due in two days and I just want to make sure the book is truly wrong. The question's simple enough: given f,g continuous on the circle ([-pi,pi)), is

[tex](f,g)=\int_0^{\pi} fg^*dt[/tex]

an inner product on the space of continuous functions defined on the circle?

We're saying yes because the 3 properties are verified:

i) (af+bg,h) = a(f,h)+b(g,h), as if evident by the properties of the integral.

ii) [tex](f,g)^* = \left( \int_0^{\pi} gf^*dt \right)^* = \int_0^{\pi} (gf^*)^*dt = \int_0^{\pi} fg^*dt = (g,f)[/tex]

iii) [tex](f,f) = \int_0^{\pi} ff^*dt = \int_0^{\pi} |f|^2 dt \geq 0[/tex]

(since |f| >= 0 and = 0 <==> f=0)


Hence all 3 properties are verified. Any objection?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Are these complex functions of a real variable? Is * complex conjugation or convolution?
 
It seems clear by iii that * is complex conjugation.
 
yeah.
-----------------
 
Is there a reason why the integral is only from 0 to [itex]\pi[/itex] when the functions are defined on the entire unit circle (in the complex plane)?

Suppose f(x) were define to be 0 for t between 0 and [itex]\pi[/itex] and sin(t) when t is between [itex]\pi[/itex] and [itex]2\pi[/itex].
What is [itex]\int ff*dt[/itex] then?
 
Last edited by a moderator:
Ok, I see. I just received a call from aforementioned pals who just found the 'ick'.
 
Last edited:

Similar threads

  • · Replies 21 ·
Replies
21
Views
1K
  • · Replies 31 ·
2
Replies
31
Views
5K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 15 ·
Replies
15
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
2K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
4K