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imiyakawa
#1
Nov2-09, 01:08 AM
P: 251
Can the Quantum Zeno Effect be solely attributed to decoherence? In every single case?

Is the concensus on this matter opinion, or rigorously tested fact in which every case can be attributed to decoherence?

On a more well known note, can the supposed wavefunction collapse (which gives rise to the quantum zeno effect) be entirely attributed to decoherence?


Can a wavefunction collapse without any decoherence? (Or maybe there's always some sort of decoherence if the particle exists in the universe?)



Also, doesn't decoherence kind of disprove the many worlds interpretation (obviously it hasn't, or this interpretation wouldn't exist anymore..)? Are we supposed to believe that we have somehow ended up in this universe out of infinite potentials where decoherence exists and continues to exist?
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