View Single Post
May13-10, 11:31 AM
P: 738
Here is another approach. It is easy to show that for x > e the function (1/e)x is greater than the function ln(x) by comparing derivatives. So, for x > e, x-(1/e)x < x-ln(x), which gives a lower bound for our function. This lower bound is unbounded, which is enough to show that our original function is unbounded.