View Single Post
 P: 9 Hi, Thank you for your reply. I am only interested in the case with B=0. The expression for the magnetization is $M=[1-\sinh^{-4}(2/k_B T)]^{1/8}$. The susceptibility is obtained from $\chi = \frac{- ^2}{k_B T}$. But I don't know the analytical expression for $\chi$...