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Orion_PKFD
Orion_PKFD is offline
#3
Aug2-11, 01:30 PM
P: 9
Hi,

Thank you for your reply. I am only interested in the case with B=0.

The expression for the magnetization is [itex]M=[1-\sinh^{-4}(2/k_B T)]^{1/8}[/itex].

The susceptibility is obtained from [itex]\chi = \frac{<M^2>- <M>^2}{k_B T}[/itex].

But I don't know the analytical expression for [itex]\chi[/itex]...