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Hi,
Thank you for your reply. I am only interested in the case with B=0.
The expression for the magnetization is [itex]M=[1-\sinh^{-4}(2/k_B T)]^{1/8}[/itex].
The susceptibility is obtained from [itex]\chi = \frac{<M^2>- <M>^2}{k_B T}[/itex].
But I don't know the analytical expression for [itex]\chi[/itex]...
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