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Feb17-12, 10:26 PM
P: 183
Quote Quote by ghwellsjr View Post
Why should I pursue this any farther on your blog when you reject what I'm offering here? I get the impression you didn't even read my post. You didn't respond to anything I said. I didn't say anything about Lorentz derivation. You always want to reject the simple explanations and come up with your own.

Please answer my question in the previous post: how can you explain time dilation as being nothing more than length contraction when length contraction only applies along the direction of motion whereas time dilation applies without regard to the direction of motion?
Hi Ghwellsjr,

Thanks for the answer, interesting.

Sorry for that, but it was a quick answer for me, I had to go sleeping.

Now again, so I wanted always answer later.

But I can already give a quick answer (I come back later on it in the weekend).

Your situation is mine with the car but with light in an angel right on the car's top. If I don't believe in time dilation there is nothing special for me in your example. In both cases the clock has the same rate but specifies a different time because its light path is shorter.

But you can also ask, why can I explain in the moving direction with length contraction and so a shorter meter (1/γ) the same time 1/γ.t with and without time dilation (Lorentz) ? Just as you always say "you need a clock to measure time", so I say "you need a ruler to measure a distance" ...

I go also to look to your other example later ..