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Old Nov23-09, 07:55 AM                  #1
ewan_71

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Interatomic forces in an ensemble via vector analysis

Hi all,

My question is about obtaining the force between two particular atoms in an ensemble. Please excuse my ignorance on this topic. I can calculate all the forces in the system by the Hellmann–Feynman theorem using any quantum mechanical code. This is the print out from such a code:

Forces on atoms are in units of Ry/au
atom 1 force = 0.00166685 -0.00270340 -0.00251785
atom 2 force = -0.00060500 -0.00337831 0.00397175
atom 3 force = 0.00306646 -0.00125532 -0.00156902
atom 4 force = -0.00081405 -0.00165894 0.00224862

The atomic positions are, in fractional coordinates:
1 0.494721110 0.619850102 0.464420445
2 0.296515967 0.455429577 0.485041062
3 0.263967419 0.580233832 0.449392069
4 0.490069979 0.402504092 0.458079571

As I understand it, the force on atom 1 in the direction of atom 2 is given by:

F(1,2)= (R(1,2)dotF1)*R(1,2),

Where the directional vector is R(1,2) = P2-P1/|P2-P1| and P1 and P2 are the positions of the atoms 1 and 2.

The above gives:

F(1,2)= -0.001278802 0.00172051 -0.0002 and |F(1,2)| = 0.25835556 which is repulsive

Furthermore, how about the force on atom two in the direction of atom one? By the same approach this force is 0.002931211 which is also repulsive.

Is it true then to think that, the 1-2 inter-atomic force is, given by F(1,2)+F(2,1)??

Any help on this topic would be greatly appreciated!! Thank you very much in advance!!

Ewan
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Old Nov23-09, 09:56 AM                  #2
alxm

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Re: Interatomic forces in an ensemble via vector analysis

Originally Posted by ewan_71 View Post
Is it true then to think that, the 1-2 inter-atomic force is, given by F(1,2)+F(2,1)??
As an approximation yes, if they're only bound to eachother. If either has bonds to other atoms then you've got a more complicated situation.
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