What is the CP operator on pion combinations?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the application of the CP operator on different pion states, specifically focusing on the states of single pions and pion combinations. Participants explore the implications of CP symmetry in the context of particle physics, particularly regarding the behavior of neutral and charged pions.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Conceptual clarification
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant presents calculations for the CP operator applied to the states of pions, specifically noting that CP applied to the state of two pions results in a +1 eigenvalue.
  • Another participant suggests expressing the state of the neutral pion (\(\pi^0\)) in terms of quark content, leading to a calculation that indicates CP for \(\pi^0\) might also yield +1.
  • There is uncertainty expressed about the expected CP value for \(\pi^0\), with one participant recalling it as -1, leading to confusion about the calculations presented.
  • A later reply emphasizes the need to consider both flavor and spin wavefunctions when analyzing the \(\pi^0\) state, suggesting a more complex structure than initially considered.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants do not reach a consensus on the CP value for the \(\pi^0\) state, with conflicting recollections and calculations leading to uncertainty. The discussion remains unresolved regarding the correct application of the CP operator and its implications for the pion states.

Contextual Notes

Participants highlight the importance of including both flavor and spin components in the wavefunction, indicating that previous calculations may have overlooked these factors. There is also mention of a potential loss of the (-)^l factor in the initial calculations, which could affect the results.

rubenvb
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Hi,

I have a question regarding the CP operator on pion systems.
1) CP \mid \pi^0 \rangle
2) CP \mid \pi^+ \pi^- \rangle
3) CP \mid \pi^0 \pi^0 \rangle

I'd like to solve this in the above ket notation and apply the operators as is on the different parts of the represented wave function. My solution for 2) is:
CP \mid \pi^+ \pi^- \rangle
= C \mid \pi^- \pi^+ \rangle (switch pions physically in e.g. x-coordinate)
= \mid \pi^+ \pi^- \rangle (invert charges)
Thus CP is +1 for \mid \pi^+ \pi^- \rangle. This does not seem to work for 1). Note I have somehow lost the notion of (-)^l that should be present somewhere :S

Any help is appreciated.
 
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write the state for the pi0 in terms quarks
 
ansgar said:
write the state for the pi0 in terms quarks

OK, this is where I get:
CP \mid \pi^0 \rangle = CP \frac{\mid u \bar{u} \rangle - \mid d \bar{d} \rangle}{\sqrt{2}}
= \frac{ CP \mid u \bar{u} \rangle - CP \mid d \bar{d} \rangle}{\sqrt{2}}
= \frac{C \mid \bar{u} u \rangle - C \mid \bar{d} d \rangle}{\sqrt{2}}
= \frac{ \mid u \bar{u} \rangle - \mid d \bar{d} \rangle}{\sqrt{2}} = \mid \pi^0 \rangle
This would mean CP for a \pi^0 is +1, while I kind of remember it being -1... What do I do wrong?
 
sorry for my first message, I did not pay attention.[/size]

Together with the flavor wavefunction \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\left( |u\bar{u}\rangle - |d\bar{d}\rangle \right)
one has to take into account spin \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\left(|\uparrow\downarrow\rangle - |\downarrow\uparrow\rangle \right) as well
|\pi^0\rangle=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\left[ <br /> \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\left( |u_\uparrow\bar{u}_\downarrow\rangle - |d_\uparrow\bar{d}_\downarrow\rangle \right)<br /> - \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\left( |u_\downarrow\bar{u}_\uparrow\rangle -|d_\downarrow\bar{d}_\uparrow\rangle \right) \right]<br /> =\frac{1}{2}\left[ <br /> |u_\uparrow\bar{u}_\downarrow\rangle - <br /> |u_\downarrow\bar{u}_\uparrow\rangle - <br /> |d_\uparrow\bar{d}_\downarrow\rangle + <br /> |d_\downarrow\bar{d}_\uparrow\rangle \right]<br />
 
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