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Divergence and Flux

by demoz
Tags: divergence, flux
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demoz
#1
May10-11, 01:38 AM
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If F is a well defined vector field and divF=0 then does that mean the flux of F across any surface in 3D would also be 0?

I know that in divergence theorem, divF=0 automatically implies that the integral will be 0 but what about across flat surfaces and planes?
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tiny-tim
#2
May10-11, 08:08 AM
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hi demoz! welcome to pf!
Quote Quote by demoz View Post
If F is a well defined vector field and divF=0 then does that mean the flux of F across any surface in 3D would also be 0?
across any closed surface, yes
otherwise, no


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