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Jan7-06, 10:46 PM
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Last edited by Hurkyl; Jan7-06 at 11:08 PM..
#65
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Hurkyl is
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pervect: I concur with George Jones. The dual basis  to a basis  is a very, well, basic part of linear algebra. Among other things, it is the only basis such that, for any vector v, we have that  .
Basically, I'd rather keep , something that is true with (1) and not true with (2).
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That expression doesn't even make sense. The left hand side is an upper-indexed collection of covectors. The right hand side is an upper-indexed collection of vectors -- the types don't match.
To state it differently, each of the  's is a vector, and thus has an upper index, which I will denote with a dot. Each of the  's is a covector, and thus has a lower index, which I will denote with another dot. You're claiming that  , but the indices don't line up.
Another shorter way of saying this - the mapping A from V to V* is actually in tensor notation, a mixed tensor of rank (1,1)
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No, it is not! This is an elementary fact about dual spaces: there does not exist a natural map from a vector space to its dual. Loosely speaking, everything transforms wrongly -- if I change coordinates in  by doubling everything, I need to change coordinates in  by halving everything. A tensor would do the wrong thing!
Remember that, in the way people usually do coordinates, the action of a covector  on a vector  is simply given by  -- it is determined by a rank-(1,1) tensor. The only rank-(1,1) tensors whose components are coordinate-independent are the multiples of  , and thus  are the only possible choices if you want the components of this expression to be independent of the coordinates.
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Jan8-06, 04:56 AM
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Last edited by Oxymoron; Jan8-06 at 05:08 AM..
#66
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Oxymoron is
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Ive been trying to follow this. From what I can gather, the definition of a metric tensor which I wrote about 12 posts ago was the "metric tensor of an inner product". I neglected to write inner product because, well, at that stage it was the only metric tensor I knew.
See I was considering a real inner product space  with a map
defined by taking the inner product of two arguments:
Then one could say that when the tensor  acts on two elements from  such that
then this action is simply taking the inner product. That is
In my opinion, the Kronecker delta,  should be used with caution in general. For example, in a Euclidean inner product space with a metric tensor you can find an orthonormal basis  such that
This way,  is a tensor and we have the special property
and so every tensor can be written with all its indices raised or lowered, since raising and lowering has no effect on the values of the components of the tensors. But, of course, you can only do this in Cartesian space where there is a good notion of orthonormality.
Im not sure If I have helped or not. I just wanted to clarify what I was talking about.
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Jan8-06, 08:14 AM
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Last edited by robphy; Jan8-06 at 08:26 AM..
#67
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robphy is
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Originally Posted by Oxymoron
In my opinion, the Kronecker delta, should be used with caution in general.
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Just a comment on the Kronecker delta  ...
this is sometimes called the "[abstract-]index substitution operator" since  and  . So, it seems to me that, since  , specifying  cannot uniquely define a metric on V.
[edit]...unless, possibly, you pick out a preferred basis.
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Jan8-06, 08:36 AM
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Last edited by George Jones; Jan8-06 at 09:10 AM..
#68
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George Jones is
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Originally Posted by Oxymoron
In my opinion, the Kronecker delta, should be used with caution in general.
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I cannot emphasize strongly enough that, given a basis for a vector space  , there is no problem with using the Kronecker delta to define an associated dual basis for  , the algebraic dual of  . This is a very useful construction that is independent of the signature of any possible "metric" that is defined on  . As Hurkyl says, this an oft used construction in (multi)linear algebra.
Given a basis  for  , I prefer to use a different symbol (as mentioned by pervect) for the associated basis of  , i.e., define linear functionals on  by  . Then each  lives in  , and  is a basis for  .
Hurkyl gave a nice property for the basis  that exists even when there is no metric tensor defined on  . When a (non-degenerate) metric tensor (of any signature!) is defined on  , the  basis for  has another nice property. If the metric is used as a map from  to  , and if the components of a vector  in  with respect to the  basis of  are  , then the components of the components of the covector that the metric maps to are with respect to the basis  for  .
The of dual basis  defined using a Kronecker delta is quite important even the inner product on  is not positive definite.
A reason for using different symbols for a basis for  that is dual to a basis for  is as follows.
Let  be an non-degenerate inner product (of any signature) defined on  , and define
For each  and  ,  is a real number, and therefore each  is a linear combination of the elements in the basis  of  . As such, each  is an element of  , i.e., a vector, and not an element of  , i.e., not a covector. This is true in spite of the fact that each  transforms "the wrong way to be a vector".
I gave a short outline of the connection between the abstract multilinear algebra approach to tensors and the transformation approach in this thread.
A metric tensor can be defined without using bases. I am working on a long post about Minkowski spacetime that might bring this thread full circle back to its beginning, and might be amenable to Oxymoron's math(s) background. It starts by defining a Minkowski vector space.
Minkowski spacetime  is a 4-dimensional vector space  together with a symmetric, non-degenerate, bilinear mapping  . A vector in  is called a 4-vector, and a 4-vector  is called timelike if  , lightlike if  , and spacelike if  .  is such that: 1) timelike vectors exist; 2)  is spacelike whenever  is timelike and  .
Regards,
George
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Jan8-06, 09:23 AM
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Last edited by Oxymoron; Jan8-06 at 09:40 AM..
#69
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Oxymoron is
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Before I go on, just a small clarification. So far we have been referring to the metric tensor by  . Now, if we move to Minkowski spacetime, is the metric tensor given by  ?
If we consider spacetime, the the action of the metric  on two arbitrary vectors  is basically an inner product isn't it? Since
Now, since inner products between two vectors always give some scalar, and since a scalar is an index-free entity, they must remain invariant under any sort of Lorentz transformation?
Now lets turn this effect in on itself and take the inner product of a vector with itself. In Euclidean space, such an inner product is, of course, the norm of a vector, and it is always positive. However, in spacetime, this is not the case? Because
So from such a tensor, we may define the Kronecker delta (which is a tensor of type (1,1)) as
Is this a sufficient derivation of the Kronecker delta in spacetime? By the way, am I correct in using Greek indices when referring to spacetime coordinates?
If I transform the spacetime metric tensor  will its components change IF I consider only flat spacetime? Is the same true for the Kronecker delta in flat spacetime? What will happen if spacetime is not flat?
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Jan8-06, 10:18 AM
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Last edited by George Jones; Jan8-06 at 10:26 AM..
#70
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George Jones is
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Originally Posted by Oxymoron
So far we have been referring to the metric tensor by .
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Some people use this notation (abstract index notation) for a tensor, while others don't. Some people choose to interpret  as components of a tensor with respect to a given basis, as I did in post #52. Then each  is a real number. I have mixed feelings on the subject. Regardless of one's choice of notation, there is an important distinction to be made between a tensor, and the components of a tensor with respect to a basis.
Now, if we move to Minkowski spacetime, is the metric tensor given by ?
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This notation is often, but not exclusively, used.
the action of the metric on two arbitrary vectors is basically an inner product isn't it? Since

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Here, you're treating  ,  , and  as real numbers. This can't be done without first choosing a basis. Another important point: the metric exists without choosing a basis. See the bottom of post #68. A interesting and some what challenging exercise is to show that this definition implies the existence of orthonormal bases. Note that I have used (purely as a matter of personal choice) the opposite signature to you. It seems I am in the minority with respect to this on this forum.
Now, since inner products between two vectors always give some scalar, and since a scalar is an index-free entity, they must remain invariant under any sort of Lorentz transformation?
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This is the *definition* of a Lorentz transformation. Given  (or if you prefer,  ), a Lorentz transformation is a linear mapping  such that
Exercise: show that this implies  for every  and  in  .
From this defintion it follows that a Lorentz transformation maps an orthonormal basis to another orthomormal basis.
Is this a sufficient derivation of the Kronecker delta in spacetime?
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I perfer to think of it this way. The Kronecker delta is a mathematic object defined to be zero of indices are not equal and one if indices are equal. From the definition of  , it follows that
This leads to (but does not beg!) the question: How are the  defined?
By the way, am I correct in using Greek indices when referring to spacetime coordinates?
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Again, this notational convention is often, but not exclusively, used. For example, Wald's well-known text on general relativity uses latin indices to think of  as a tensor, and of  as the components of a tensor with respect to a given basis. Both sets of indices in this book run over all of spacetime. This part of the abstract index notation to which I referred above.
If I transform the spacetime metric tensor will its components change IF I consider only flat spacetime? ?
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In general, yes! Think of the change from inertial to spherical coordinates, etc.
Regards,
George
PS I know you're being overwhelmed by details, and by different points of view, but you're doing great.
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Jan8-06, 11:47 AM
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Last edited by Hurkyl; Jan8-06 at 11:53 AM..
#71
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Hurkyl is
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Incidentally, just what sort of beast is  supposed to be anyways? Is it just supposed to be a vector-valued one-form, and thus a rank (1,1) tensor? Is it merely an indexed collection of vectors, and that contracting with that index has a radically different significance than with tensors? Or is it something else entirely?
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Jan8-06, 12:29 PM
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#72
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George Jones is
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Originally Posted by Hurkyl
Incidentally, just what sort of beast is supposed to be anyways?
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I have been using  as a basis for a n-dimensional vector space  , so the lower index  on  just specifies which element of the basis, which vector in  . Consequently,  is a vector, a (1,0) tensor, an element of  , a linear mapping from  to  , etc.
Any  in  can be expanded as  . The upper index on [itex]v^i[itex] specifies which component, i.e., which real number.
These are the conventions that I have been using. The abstract index approach treats indices differently.
Regards,
George
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Jan8-06, 12:40 PM
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Last edited by Hurkyl; Jan8-06 at 12:43 PM..
#73
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Hurkyl is
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I guess I didn't explain my question well enough:
Each of the individual components of  are real numbers, but taken as a whole, they define a rank (1,1) tensor.
When taken as a whole, are the  supposed to define a rank (1,1) tensor as well?
(Looking again, maybe you did answer my question, saying that as a whole, it's simply supposed to be an indexed collection of vectors, and not form a tensor at all -- but I still feel compelled to restate myself to make sure you're giving the answer I think I'm getting!)
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Jan8-06, 01:43 PM
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#74
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pervect is
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Well, it looks like I'm outvoted. I may have some more comments or questions after I've studies some of the critical responses in more detail.
At the top of the list: if raising an index isn't creating a map from a vector to a co-vector, how should the operation be described? (Maybe it's a non-linear map?).
Meanwhile, this has been a very educational (if rather long) thread.
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Jan8-06, 01:46 PM
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Last edited by George Jones; Jan8-06 at 01:49 PM..
#75
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George Jones is
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Originally Posted by Hurkyl
When taken as a whole, are the supposed to define a rank (1,1) tensor as well?
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Ah, I knew there was more to your question than what I saw. I'm not sure, and I have no references here with me. I'd like to look into this later today or tomorrow.
Your question has made me think more about the Kronecker delta. Let  be a basis for  and  be the associated dual basis of  . Then the vector-valued on-form  (sum over i) has components  . Letting this act on  in  gives
Regards,
George
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Jan8-06, 02:00 PM
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#76
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George Jones is
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Originally Posted by pervect
if raising an index isn't creating a map from a vector to a co-vector, how should the operation be described?
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Raising the indices of elements of basis sets, i.e., going from  to  is a basis dependent (change the basis and the mapping changes) metric independent linear mapping between  and  .
Rasing the indices of components, i.e., going from  to  is basis independent (in spite of the fact that I've specified it trems of components) metric dependent linear mapping from  to  .
In general, these 2 mappings are not inverses of each other.
Meanwhile, this has been a very educational (if rather long) thread.
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Very much so.
Regards,
George
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Jan8-06, 03:32 PM
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Last edited by Hurkyl; Jan8-06 at 03:37 PM..
#77
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Hurkyl is
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Originally Posted by George Jones
.
Raising the indices of elements of basis sets, i.e., going from to 
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Is it accurate to call passing from a basis to the dual basis "raising indices"? I would have said that raising the indices on  produces the collection of vectors  (and thus not a collection of covectors, so that it certainly cannot be the dual basis).
pervect: let me try starting over for this whole discussion!  (And writing it in math-speak instead of physics-speak -- I think any sort of theoretical discussion is more clear in math-speak)
Think back to your introduction to linear algebra. You probably talked about bases, and coordinates with respect to those bases. (You also probably said "Yah, yah" and promptly ignored it, much like I did when I was first introduced.  )
The important thing was that when you selected a basis B for your vector space V, it allows you to write it in terms of coordinates -- it allows you to write the column-vector ![LaTeX Code: [v]_B](latex_images/87/876484-4.png) .
Continuing on, if you had a linear map  and you selected bases B and B', it allows you to write the matrix ![LaTeX Code: [T]_{B,Bsingle-quote}](latex_images/87/876484-6.png) .
This is all important because we have the identity
in other words, the column-vector of components of T(v) (with respect to B') are given precisely by multiplying the matrix representation of T (with respect to B and B') by the column-vector of comopnents of v (with repsect to B).
This machinery is exactly what permits us to do elementary linear algebra in terms of matrix arithmetic. Without this machinery in place, we wouldn't be able to talk about things like the components of a vector, or of a matrix.
Matrix arithmetic isn't just good for vectors and linear transformations, though: it is also good for covectors. Just like the vectors of V are naturally modelled as column-vectors and linear transformations  are naturally modelled as square matrices, we have that covectors in  are naturally modelled as row-vectors.
So once we've chosen a basis B for V, we are very strongly compelled to select a basis  for  that is compatable with matrix arithmetic. In other words, we insist that:
Since each basis vector in B is mapped to a standard-basis column-vector, and each basis covector in  is mapped to a standard-basis row-vector, we must insist that
where  ranges over the basis vectors in B, and  ranges over the basis covectors in  .
It is precisely this choice which allows us to speak about the components of a vector, covector, or in general any tensor, and do our computations in the usual way.
To state this differently, if you do not choose the dual basis in this manner, you absolutely, positively, cannot manipulate tensors in the usual way via their components.
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Jan8-06, 04:51 PM
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#78
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masudr is
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So... if I've gotten this correctly, basis vectors and basis covectors are mapped to each other by the Kronecker delta.
If that is indeed the case, then how can we normally raise and lower components (which is basically transforming vectors into covectors) using the metric, which is not necessarily the Kronecker delta (e.g. in the case of Minkowski space)?
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Jan8-06, 05:49 PM
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Last edited by selfAdjoint; Jan8-06 at 06:32 PM..
#79
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selfAdjoint is
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Originally Posted by masudr
So... if I've gotten this correctly, basis vectors and basis covectors are mapped to each other by the Kronecker delta.
If that is indeed the case, then how can we normally raise and lower components (which is basically transforming vectors into covectors) using the metric, which is not necessarily the Kronecker delta (e.g. in the case of Minkowski space)?
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You use the metric tensor or its inverse. The Kronecker delta is the metric tensor in Euclidean space. In Minkowski space it is  ; in GR it is a general symmetric rank 2 covariant tensor  .
Thus  , where you must sum over the repeated index beta; this last is called the Einstein convention. He got tired of writing all those sigmas. When you expand there will be one equation for each value of mu.
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Jan8-06, 06:36 PM
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#80
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masudr is
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selfAdjoint,
Yes, but they've just discussed above that the map between vectors (i.e. the space) and covectors (the dual space) is the Kronecker delta, not the metric tensor.
And, you're saying that the map between contravariant vectors (the space) and covariant vectors (the dual space) are the metric tensor, not the Kronecker delta.
So which is correct?
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