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Volume of a cone |
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| Jan13-06, 04:19 PM | #1 |
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Volume of a cone
Hi,
I have this problem: Compute volume of solid bounded by these planes: [tex] z = 1 [/tex] [tex] z^2 = x^2 + y^2 [/tex] When I draw it, it's cone standing on its top in the origin and cut with the [itex]z = 1[/itex] plane. So after converting to cylindrical coordinates: [tex] x = r\cos \phi [/tex] [tex] y = r\sin \phi [/tex] [tex] z = z [/tex] [tex] |J_{f}(r,\phi,z)| = r [/tex] I get [tex] 0 \leq z \leq 1 [/tex] [tex] 0 \leq \phi \leq 2\pi [/tex] [tex] 0 \leq r \leq 1 [/tex] And [tex] V = \iiint_{M}\ dx\ dy\ dz\ =\ \int_{0}^{2\pi}\int_{0}^{1}\int_{0}^{1} r\ dr\ dz\ d\phi [/tex] But I got [itex]\pi[/itex] as a result, which is obviously incorrect :( Can you see where I am doing a mistake? Thank you! |
| Jan13-06, 04:39 PM | #2 |
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Mentor
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Your limits of integration on r are wrong. Note that your maximum r changes as a function of z. What you are (correctly) calculating here is the volume of a unit cylinder, not a cone.
-Dale |
| Jan13-06, 04:46 PM | #3 |
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Why isn't it correct? EDIT: Oh, I maybe see it now..Gonna try that and possibly write again.. |
| Jan13-06, 05:32 PM | #4 |
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Mentor
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Volume of a cone
Well, you probably got it now anyway, but just in case I will tell you before I have to go for the evening. Basically instead of integrating r over 0 to 1 you need to integrate r over 0 to z.
[tex] V = \iiint_{M}\ dx\ dy\ dz\ =\ \int_{0}^{2\pi}\int_{0}^{1}\int_{0}^{z} r\ dr\ dz\ d\phi [/tex] Do you see how this is a cone and the previous integration was a cylinder? -Dale |
| Jan13-06, 05:48 PM | #5 |
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Recognitions:
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Divide the cone into discs of thickness dz. The radius of each is equal to z, so area is piz^2. Now just integrate:
[tex]\int_0^1\pi z^2dz=\pi/3[/tex] |
| Jan14-06, 04:03 AM | #6 |
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