How do different Lagrangians affect the equations of motion?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the implications of modifying a Lagrangian by adding a total time derivative and how this affects the resulting equations of motion, specifically the Euler-Lagrange equations. Participants are exploring the relationship between different forms of the Lagrangian and their equivalence in yielding the same equations of motion.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are attempting to prove that if L' = L + dφ/dt, then both L and L' yield the same Euler-Lagrange equations. Questions arise about the nature of φ and its dependence on generalized coordinates and velocities. Some participants are also seeking clarification on notation and concepts such as the total time derivative and variation.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants sharing their thoughts on the mathematical derivations and definitions involved. Some guidance has been offered regarding the total time derivative and its implications, but there is no explicit consensus on the interpretations or methods being discussed.

Contextual Notes

Participants express confusion regarding the material presented in class and the complexity of the textbook being used. There are indications of varying levels of understanding among participants, with some seeking foundational explanations of key concepts.

UrbanXrisis
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Euler-Lagrangian Equations

Let [tex]L=L(q_i(t), \dot{q}_i (t)[/tex] be a Lagrangian of a mechanical system, where [tex]q_i(t)[/tex] and [tex]\dot{q}_i (t)[/tex] are the short hand notations for [tex]q_1(t), q_2(t), . . . q_N(t)[/tex] and [tex]\dot{q}_1(t), \dot{q}_2(t), . . . \dot{q}_N(t)[/tex], respectively.

I need to prove that if [tex]L ' =L+\frac{d \phi}{dt}[/tex], then [tex]L=L(q_i(t), \dot{q}_i (t)[/tex] and [tex]L ' =L(q_i(t), \dot{q}_i (t)[/tex] give the same equations of motion (Euler-Lagrangian equations).

The Euler-Lagrangian equations is [tex]\frac{\partial L}{\partial x_i} - \frac{d}{dt} \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{x}_i }= 0[/tex]

I really have no idea where to begin. Any suggestions would be much appreciated.
 
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More generally, the equations of motions are the same up to an added time dependent function in the lagrangian. The proof is as direct as can be... just write the E-L equations for L and L' (and perform the derivatives on L').
 
[tex]\frac{\partial L}{\partial x_i} - \frac{d}{dt} \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{x}_i }= 0[/tex]

[tex]L ' =L+\frac{d \phi}{dt}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{\partial L}{\partial x_i} + \frac{\partial }{\partial x_i} \frac{d \phi }{dt}- \frac{d}{dt} \left( \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{x}_i } + \frac{\partial }{\partial \dot{x}_i } \frac{d \phi }{dt} \right)= 0[/tex]

[tex]\frac{\partial }{\partial \dot{x}_i } \frac{d \phi }{dt} = 0[/tex]

[tex]\frac{\partial L}{\partial x_i} - \frac{d}{dt} \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{x}_i }= 0[/tex]

something like that?
 
Does [itex]\phi[/itex] depend on the depend on the generalized coodinates & velocities...?

Daniel.
 
I am told that [tex]\frac{d \phi }{dt}[/tex] is a "total time derivative"
 
As i know it, the trick is that [itex]\phi=\phi\left(t,q^{i}\right)[/itex].

Therefore

[tex]\frac{d\phi}{dt} =\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial t}+\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial q^{i}} \dot{q}^{i}[/tex].

Daniel.
 
Dexter is probably right on this, because I checked the definition of "total time derivative" on wiki and it says "a derivative which takes indirect dependencies into account"*

This property of the equ. of motion you're trying to prove is mentioned in the "Landau & Lif****z" on mechanics in the first few pages of the book.*http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Total_time_derivative
 
frankly, i need some real help. My class has an awful professor and using a very mathematical book that I can't seem to grasp. Before I try to attack this problem, could someone explain to me what exactly the Euler-Lagrangian does? What does it solve for?

Also the notation [tex]L ' =L(q_i(t), \dot{q}_i (t)[/tex]

Why is there a comma between q and q dot? What does the comma symbolize?

Also, could someone please explain [tex]\delta[/tex] notation?

What does it mean when [tex]\frac{dJ}{d \alpha} d \alpha = \delta J[/tex] ?

My whole class seems confused as to what the lectures are about, so I have taken it upon myself to learn the material by myself.

In class today, we were told that [tex]\phi=\phi\left(q_i,\dot{q}_i (t),t\right)[/tex]

dextercioby said:
As i know it, the trick is that [itex]\phi=\phi\left(t,q^{i}\right)[/itex].

Therefore

[tex]\frac{d\phi}{dt} =\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial t}+\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial q^{i}} \dot{q}^{i}[/tex].

Daniel.

What is the significance of this statement dextercioby?

I am sorry for my ignorance, but I am willing to learn.
 
The Euler-Lagrange equations are the equations of motion for a system which motion is described by the generalized coordinates [itex]q_i[/itex]. They are, so to say, for generalized coordinates what the Newtonian equations are for cartesian coordinates.

[itex]L(q_i(t), \dot q_i(t) )[/itex] simply means that L ist a function of both q_i and the total time-derivatives [itex]\dot q_i[/itex]- of generalized velocities, so to say.

edit: The Euler-Lagrangian equations can be derived from the "priciple of least action", which you can take as an axiom instead of Newton's equations. From the formulas I think you did this in your course. For an introduction what it's all about I suggest Feynman's Lectures on physics, Volume 2, Chapter 19, after this f.e. Goldstein for a more detailed explanation.
 
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  • #10
what about [tex]\delta[/tex] notation? and what dextercioby wrote?
 
  • #11
If [itex]\Phi(q_i (t), \dot q_i(t),t )[/itex] the total time derivative becomes
[itex]\frac{d}{dt} \Phi = \sum \limits_i \frac{\partial \Phi}{\partial q_i} \dot q_i + \sum \limits_i \frac{\partial \Phi}{\partial \dot q_i} \ddot q_i + \frac{\partial \Phi}{\partial t}[/itex] (dexter didn't write the sum out but used Einstein convention - sum is taken over i, since i is double).
[itex]\delta[/itex] means the "variation".

For example, [itex]\delta \int \limits L(q_i, \dot q_i, t) dt =0[/itex] means that the integral doesn't change when you change the "pathfunction" q_i over which is integrated a little (just as a function has a maximum or minimum and doesn't change "nearby" when the derivative is zero). This is the "Principle of least action", from which the Euler-Lagrange-equations can be derived.
 
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  • #12
UrbanXrisis said:
[tex]\frac{\partial L}{\partial x_i} - \frac{d}{dt} \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{x}_i }= 0[/tex]

[tex]L ' =L+\frac{d \phi}{dt}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{\partial L}{\partial x_i} + \frac{\partial }{\partial x_i} \frac{d \phi }{dt}- \frac{d}{dt} \left( \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{x}_i } + \frac{\partial }{\partial \dot{x}_i } \frac{d \phi }{dt} \right)= 0[/tex]

[tex]\frac{\partial }{\partial \dot{x}_i } \frac{d \phi }{dt} = 0[/tex]

[tex]\frac{\partial L}{\partial x_i} - \frac{d}{dt} \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{x}_i }= 0[/tex]

something like that?

was what I did here okay?
 
  • #13
Hi...

I don't understand where you got [tex]\left( \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{x}_i } + \frac{\partial }{\partial \dot{x}_i } \frac{d \phi }{dt} \right)= 0[/tex]. It is supposed to be equal to L right? How is it equal to L?
 
  • #14
sorry, I just meant
[tex]\left( \frac{\partial L}{\partial \dot{x}_i } + \frac{\partial }{\partial \dot{x}_i } \frac{d \phi }{dt} \right)[/tex],
not the equal to zero part.
 
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  • #15
UrbanXrisis said:
In class today, we were told that [tex]\phi=\phi\left(q_i,\dot{q}_i (t),t\right)[/tex]

It doesn't work if [itex]\phi[/itex] depends on the generalized velocities.

Daniel.
 

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