Solving for v_1, v_2, and v_3 with Nodal Analysis

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The discussion focuses on using nodal analysis to find the voltages v_1, v_2, and v_3 in a given circuit. Initial equations are derived from Kirchhoff's Voltage Law (KVL) and Kirchhoff's Current Law (KCL), leading to a matrix representation of the system. The matrix initially indicates infinite solutions, but by eliminating the current variable, a unique solution is obtained. The final results are v_1 = 3.043 V, v_2 = -6.956 V, and v_3 = 0.6522 V. The third row of the matrix is deemed unnecessary for the solution.
VinnyCee
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Find v_1,\,v_2,\,and\,v_3 in the circuit below using nodal analysis:

PracticeProb3-4.jpg


My work so far:

I\,=\,\frac{v_1}{2\Omega},\,\,I_1\,=\,\frac{v_2}{4\Omega},\,\,I_2\,=\,\frac{v_3}{3\Omega},\,\,I_3\,=\,\frac{v_1\,-\,v_3}{6\Omega}

KVL @ loop1 => -I\,(2\Omega)\,+\,10\,V\,+\,I_1(4\Omega)\,=\,0

Which equals:
-\left(\frac{v_1}{2\Omega}\right)(2\Omega)\,+\,10\,V\,+\,\left(\frac{v_2}{4\Omega}\right)(4\Omega)\,=\,0

Which equals:
-v_1\,+\,10\,V\,+\,v_2\,=\,0

KVL @ loop2 => -v_2\,-\,5\,I\,+\,v_3\,=\,0

KVL @ loop3 => -10\,V\,+\,v_1\,-\,v_3\,+\,5\,I\,=\,0

KCL @ v1 => I\,+\,I_3\,+\,I_4\,=\,0

KCL @ v2 => I_4\,=\,I_1\,+\,I_5

KCL @ v3 => I_2\,=\,I_5\,+\,I_3

KCL @ Super Node 1 => I_4\,+\,I_3\,=\,I_1\,+\,I_2

When I combine these equations to get 4 equations with 4 variables, I get the following matrix:

\left[\begin{array}{cccc|c}<br /> -1 &amp; 1 &amp; 0 &amp; 0 &amp; -10 \\<br /> 0 &amp; -1 &amp; 1 &amp; -5 &amp; 0 \\<br /> 1 &amp; 0 &amp; -1 &amp; 5 &amp; 10 \\<br /> \frac{1}{2} &amp; \frac{1}{4} &amp; \frac{1}{3} &amp; 0 &amp; 0<br /> \end{array}\right]

The columns go like this: v1, v2, v3, I, constant

But this matrix has infinite solutions! How do I solve?
 
Last edited:
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I figured it out!

The last variable column of the matrix can be eliminated because I\,=\,\frac{v_1}{2\Omega}

This gives the matrix:

\left[\begin{array}{ccc|c}-1 &amp; 1 &amp; 0 &amp; -10 \\-\frac{5}{2} &amp; -1 &amp; 1 &amp; 0 \\ \frac{7}{2} &amp; 0 &amp; -1 &amp; 10 \\ \frac{1}{2} &amp; \frac{1}{4} &amp; \frac{1}{3} &amp; 0 \end{array}\right]

This RREF's out to:

v_1\,=\,\frac{70}{23}\,=\,3.043\,V

v_2\,=\,-\frac{160}{23}\,=\,-6.956\,V

v_3\,=\,\frac{15}{23}\,=\,0.6522\,V\,V

NOTE: The third row of the matrix is not required!
 
Last edited:
The book claims the answer is that all the magnitudes are the same because "the gravitational force on the penguin is the same". I'm having trouble understanding this. I thought the buoyant force was equal to the weight of the fluid displaced. Weight depends on mass which depends on density. Therefore, due to the differing densities the buoyant force will be different in each case? Is this incorrect?

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