Probability of Electron at x=1.0nm In 0.010nm-Wide Region

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around calculating the probability of finding an electron in a specific region of space, given a wave function that describes its behavior. The subject area is quantum mechanics, particularly focusing on wave functions and probability density.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to understand how to apply the wave function to find the probability of the electron's location. Some participants provide insights into the mathematical formulation of probability using integrals of the wave function's square, while others highlight the need for normalization of the wave function.

Discussion Status

Participants are actively discussing the necessary steps to approach the problem, including normalization of the wave function and the integration process to find the probability. There is a recognition of the need to clarify the original poster's understanding of these concepts, but no consensus has been reached on a specific method or solution.

Contextual Notes

There is mention of the original poster's uncertainty regarding the material covered in their physics book and the relevance of infinite square wells to the problem at hand. Additionally, the normalization of the wave function is noted as a critical step that has not yet been addressed.

6Stang7
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Ok, so the wave function for an electron that is confined to x>=0nm is:

w(x)=0 for x<0nm
w(X)=be^(-x/6.4nm) for x>=0nm

what is the probability of finding the electron in a 0.010nm-wide region at x=1.0nm?


I have no clue how to even start on this. This is no coverd in my physics book, so I have been trying to find something on the internet, but have come up dry. Anyone have anything that would help to explain this, along with inifinite square wells and realating the ground energy state to the width of the well?
 
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probability of finding a particle between x1 and x2:

[tex]\int_{x_1}^{x_2}P(x)dx=\int_{x_1}^{x_2} | \psi (x) | ^2dx[/tex]

with psi being the wave function.
 
kreil said:
probability of finding a particle between x1 and x2:

[tex]\int_{x_1}^{x_2}P(x)dx=\int_{x_1}^{x_2} | \psi (x) | ^2dx[/tex]

with psi being the wave function.

Under the assumption that the wavefunction is normalized (integral over all space=1). Yours isn't. Yet.
 
In other words, first determine b so that
[tex]b\int_0^\infty e^{-x/6.4}dx= 1[/tex]

Then find
[tex]b\int_{0.995}^{1.005} e^{-x/6.4}dx[/tex]
 

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