Calculate the Energy Levels of an Electron in a Finite Potential Well

In summary, the conversation discusses finding the energy states of a particle in a finite well by defining the wave function over three domains and using the time independent Schrodinger equation. The even and odd parity wave functions are derived and it is shown that there will always be an even parity solution for any given value of V0. The computation of energy levels for a specific L and V0 is also discussed and compared to the energy levels for an infinite well. It is found that the ground state energy level for the finite well is lower than that of the infinite well.
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Homework Statement
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Relevant Equations
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Thank you for reading :bow:
Section 1
To find the energy states of the particle, we define the wave function over three discrete domains defined by the sets ##\left\{x<-L\right\}##, ##\left\{-L<x<L\right\}##, and ##\left\{L<x\right\}##. The time independent Schrodinder equation is
\begin{equation}\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2}=\frac{2m}{\hbar^2}[V_(x)-|E|]\psi
\end{equation}
Outside of the well, setting ##V(x)=V_0## gives
\begin{equation}\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2}=\frac{2m}{\hbar^2}[V_0-|E|]\psi
\end{equation}
The characteristic polynomial is
\begin{equation}\lambda^2-\frac{2m[V_0-|E|]}{\hbar^2}=0\end{equation} with the roots \begin{equation}
\lambda=\pm \sqrt{\frac{2m[V_0-|E|]}{\hbar^2}}\Rightarrow \pm \alpha\end{equation}
and the general solution is
\begin{equation}
\psi=C_1e^{\alpha x}+C_2e^{-\alpha x}
\end{equation}
Inside of the finite well, setting ##V(x)=0## gives
\begin{equation}
\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2}=\frac{-2m}{\hbar^2}|E|\psi
\end{equation}
which has the following characteristic polynomial
\begin{equation}
\lambda^2+\frac{2m}{\hbar^2}|E|=0
\end{equation}
with the roots
\begin{equation}
\lambda=\pm i\sqrt{\frac{2m}{\hbar^2}|E|}\Rightarrow\pm i\sqrt{q}
\end{equation}
and the general solution is
\begin{equation}
\psi=C_1e^{iqx}+C_2e^{-iqx}\Rightarrow \psi= C_3cos(qx)+iC_4sin(qx)
\end{equation}
The real and imaginary parts of a complex valued solution form a fundamental set of solutions of the second order linear ODE, giving
\begin{equation}
\psi=A_1cos(qx)+A_2sin(qx)
\end{equation}
The even parity wave functions are

\begin{equation}
\psi=Ce^{\alpha x}|_{\left\{x<-L\right\}}
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}
\psi=Acos(qx)|_{\left\{|x|<L\right\}}
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}
\psi=Ce^{-\alpha x}|_{\left\{L<x\right\}}
\end{equation}
the odd parity wave functions are
\begin{equation}
\psi=-Ce^{\alpha x}|_{\left\{x<-L\right\}}
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}
\psi=Asin(qx)|_{\left\{|x|<L\right\}}
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}
\psi=Ce^{-\alpha x}|_{\left\{L<x\right\}}
\end{equation}
Section 2
For the even solution, we require ##\psi \in C^1(\pm L)\Rightarrow \psi## is once continuously differentiable at ##x=\pm L##
\begin{equation}
\psi_{in}(\pm L)= \psi_{out}(\pm L)\Rightarrow Acos(qL)=Ce^{-\alpha L}
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}
\psi'_{in}(\pm L)= \psi'_{out}(\pm L)\Rightarrow Aqsin(qL)=\alpha Ce^{-\alpha L}
\end{equation}
we divide equation (18) by (17) and do a change of variables using $$x=qL$$ and $$r^2=\frac{2mV_0L^2}{\hbar^2}$$ The even solutions are given implicitly by
\begin{equation}
xtan(x)=\sqrt{r^2-x^2}
\end{equation}
For the odd functions, we again require that ##\psi \in C^1(\pm L)##
\begin{equation}
\psi_{in}(\pm L)= \psi_{out}(\pm L)\Rightarrow Asin(qL)=Ce^{-\alpha L}
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}
\psi'_{in}(\pm L)= \psi'_{out}(\pm L)\Rightarrow Aqcos(qL)=-\alpha Ce^{-\alpha L}
\end{equation}
and divide equation (20) by (21). Following a change of variables for ##x## and ##r^2## we have
\begin{equation}
-x cot(x)=\sqrt{r^2-x^2}
\end{equation}
Section 3
(19) and (22) are transcendental equations whose solutions are obtained using numerical approximations. The even solutions are given by
\begin{equation}
\{ \{y=xtan(x)\}\cap \{y=\sqrt{r^2-x^2}\}|x\in [0,\infty)\}
\end{equation}
and the odd solutions are given by
\begin{equation}
\{\{y=-xcot(x)\}\cap\{y=\sqrt{r^2-x^2}\}|x\in [0,\infty)\}
\end{equation}
It is worth mentioning the solutions exist in the domain \begin{equation}
\{(x,y)\in {\rm I\!R} \times[0,\infty)\}
\end{equation}
and the solution space is symmetric in the ##x## and the ##-x##. For wells with
\begin{equation}
V_0<\frac{(\hbar \pi)^2}{8mL^2}\Rightarrow L<\frac{\hbar \pi}{\sqrt{8mV_0}}\Rightarrow r<\frac{\pi}{2}
\end{equation}
we use the fact ##r=\frac{\pi}{2}## is in the exceptional set defined by $$\varepsilon(f)=\Big\{\alpha\in\bar{\mathbb{Q}}:f(\alpha)\in\bar{\mathbb{Q}}\Big\}$$ where ##Q## denotes the field of rational numbers.
$$0=-\Big(\frac{\pi}{2}\Big)cot\Big(\frac{\pi}{2}\Big)=\sqrt{\Big(\frac{\pi}{2}\Big)^2-x^2}$$
It follows that
\begin{equation}
\{\{y=-xcot(x)\}\cap\{y=\sqrt{r^2-x^2}\}|(x,r)\in [0,\infty)\times{[0,\frac{\pi}{2}})\}=\{\emptyset\}
\end{equation}
so there are no odd parity energy states. In the meanwhile, we find
\begin{equation}
\{ \{y=xtan(x)\}\cap \{y=\sqrt{r^2-x^2}\}|(x,r)\in [0,\infty)\times[0,\infty)\}\neq\{\emptyset\}
\end{equation}
so there will always be an even parity solution for any ##V_o##. In particular, we find that ##\{y=xtan(x)\}\cap \{y=\sqrt{r^2-x^2}\}\}## where ##r\in[0,\frac{\pi}{2})## is the graph of ##y=xtan(x)## in the region ##\{|x|\leq.934\}##. So, there exists only one energy state of even parity for
$$V_0<\frac{(\hbar \pi)^2}{8mL^2}$$
Section 4
Setting ##L=1nm## and ##V_0=1eV##, we compute
$$
r^2=\frac{2mV_0L^2}{\hbar^2}=\frac{2(9.1\times10^{-31}kg)(1.6\times10^{-19}J)(10^{-9})^2m}{(1.054\times10^{-34}Js)^2}\approx26.2729J
$$
we plot
\begin{equation}
y=xtan(x)
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}
y=-xcot(x)
\end{equation}
\begin{equation}
y=\sqrt{26.2729-x^2}
\end{equation}
and find
$$x_{even}=\{1.312, 3.86\}$$
and
$$x_{odd}=\{2.608, 4.964\}$$
We compute the energy using
\begin{equation}
E=\frac{x^2\hbar^2}{2mL^2}
\end{equation}
giving
$$E_{1even}\approx1.05\times10^{-20}J$$
$$E_{2even}\approx9.09\times10^{-20}J$$
and
$$E_{1odd}\approx4.15\times10^{-20}J$$
$$E_{2odd}\approx1.50\times10^{-19}J$$
The expression for the energy levels of the infinite well is
\begin{equation}
E_n=\frac{n^2\pi^2\hbar^2}{8mL^2}
\end{equation}
giving
$$E_1\approx1.50\times10^{-20}J$$
$$E_2\approx6.02\times10^{-20}J$$
so the ground state energy level for the finite well is lower.
 
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  • #2
Looks good overall.

Eq 27 and 28: Normally ##\emptyset## is already the empty set. What you wrote is a non-empty set containing the empty set as element.

Section 4:
r is dimensionless, not in J

eV would be a more natural unit for the energy levels, especially as the potential is given in eV as well.
 
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  • #3
mfb said:
Looks good overall.

Eq 27 and 28: Normally ##\emptyset## is already the empty set. What you wrote is a non-empty set containing the empty set as element.

Section 4:
r is dimensionless, not in J

eV would be a more natural unit for the energy levels, especially as the potential is given in eV as well.
Thank you! :bow: I see what I did there.
 
  • #4
Some useful combinations to memorize are
\begin{align*}
hc &= 1240~{\rm nm\cdot eV} \\
\hbar c &= 197.3~{\rm nm\cdot eV~(or~MeV\cdot fm)} \\
mc^2 &= 511000~{\rm eV}
\end{align*} where ##m## is the mass of the electron.

Using these and strategically introducing factors of ##c##, you can avoid a lot of unit conversions. For example, you had
$$r^2 = \frac{2mV_0L^2}{\hbar^2} = \frac{2(mc^2)V_0 L^2}{(\hbar c)^2}
= \frac{2(511000~{\rm eV})(1.0~{\rm eV})(1.0~{\rm nm})^2}{(197.3~\rm{eV\cdot nm})^2} = 26$$
 
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  • #5
vela said:
Some useful combinations to memorize are
\begin{align*}
hc &= 1240~{\rm nm\cdot eV} \\
\hbar c &= 197.3~{\rm nm\cdot eV~(or~MeV\cdot fm)} \\
mc^2 &= 511000~{\rm eV}
\end{align*} where ##m## is the mass of the electron.

Using these and strategically introducing factors of ##c##, you can avoid a lot of unit conversions. For example, you had
$$r^2 = \frac{2mV_0L^2}{\hbar^2} = \frac{2(mc^2)V_0 L^2}{(\hbar c)^2}
= \frac{2(511000~{\rm eV})(1.0~{\rm eV})(1.0~{\rm nm})^2}{(197.3~\rm{eV\cdot nm})^2} = 26$$
Thank you sir 🐯 :bow:
 

1. What is a finite potential well?

A finite potential well is a theoretical model used to describe the behavior of an electron confined within a finite region of space, surrounded by a potential barrier. This model is often used to study the energy levels and properties of atoms, molecules, and other quantum systems.

2. How is the energy level of an electron in a finite potential well calculated?

The energy level of an electron in a finite potential well can be calculated using the Schrödinger equation, which is a mathematical equation that describes the behavior of quantum systems. The solution to this equation yields the allowed energy levels for the electron within the well.

3. What factors affect the energy levels of an electron in a finite potential well?

The energy levels of an electron in a finite potential well are affected by the depth and width of the potential well, as well as the mass and charge of the electron. Additionally, the shape of the potential well and any external forces acting on the electron can also impact its energy levels.

4. How do energy levels in a finite potential well differ from those in an infinite potential well?

In an infinite potential well, the potential barrier surrounding the electron is infinitely high, meaning that the electron is completely confined to a specific region. In a finite potential well, the potential barrier is not infinitely high, allowing the electron to have a range of energy levels and the potential to escape the well.

5. What is the significance of calculating the energy levels of an electron in a finite potential well?

Calculating the energy levels of an electron in a finite potential well can provide valuable insights into the behavior of quantum systems and can be used to understand the properties of atoms, molecules, and other particles. This knowledge is essential for many areas of science, including chemistry, physics, and materials science.

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