
#1
Jul208, 09:55 AM

P: 18

This should be relitively simple:
y = x ... convert to spherical coords: p*sin(r)*sin(t) = p*sin(r)*cos(t) which reduces to... sin(t) = cos(t) tan(t) = 1 (is this right?) t =~ 0.78... (Can i get a nice fraction for this?) Any help is appreciated.  glog 



#3
Jul208, 10:29 AM

Math
Emeritus
Sci Advisor
Thanks
PF Gold
P: 38,900

in other words, "y= x" in spherical coordinates reduces to the set of points where t= [itex]\theta= \pi/4[/itex], r= [itex]\phi[/itex] and p= [itex]\rho[/itex] can be anything. Do you see that that is, in fact, the same as the plane y= x?




#4
Jul208, 11:04 AM

P: 18

Convert equation from cartesian to spherical
yep makes perfect sense....
only one angle is fixed :) 


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