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Canonical Transform proof |
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| Mar3-12, 04:09 PM | #1 |
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Canonical Transform proof
Consider the following change of variables in phase space f: maps the reals and is smooth and invertable change of coordinates Q=f(q), q = f-1(Q). Given f, define a change of variables on phase space (q,p) -> (Q,P) by the pair of relations
Pj = (∇f-1)Tjk(f(q))pk q runs from 1 to n show that its canonical. I know that for this to be canonical (dQi/dqj)(q,p) = (dpj/dPi)(Q,P) (dQi/dpj)(q,p) = -(dqj/dPi)(Q,P) i'm having a couple problems, is f the generating function that i have to find explicitly? Can i use the sympletic method such that MJM^T = J what is the point of the transpose for the (∇f-1)Tjk part for? i thought f had to be symmetric. |
| Mar4-12, 11:11 AM | #2 |
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for Pj it can equal
(∇f-1)TjkQpk =(∇f)T *-1jkqpk but for that to be true then (∇f-1)Tjk has to be symmetric therefore the transpose dissapears looking at my notes, i think this is supposed to be the associated point transformation in phase space |
| Mar5-12, 12:04 PM | #3 |
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Guess i can answer my own question... i knew how to do it but i had an error in my notes
[dQ, dP)T = [{dQ/dq, dQ/dp}, {dP/dq, dP/dp}]*[dq, dp] = Mij*[dq, dp] to prove its a canonical transformation MJMT = J where J = [{0,I},{-I,0}] and T represents the transpose If i do the matrix multiplication and say: now i will let {a,b} where a and b are some arbitrary coordinates be the poisson brackets MJMT = [(0,{Q,P}), (-{Q,P},0)] It is known that {P,P} = 0 = {Q,Q} and {Q,P} = δij Using the following vvvv ![]() and there you have it |
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