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Interesting Identity |
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| Mar9-12, 01:44 PM | #1 |
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Interesting Identity
Hey guys,
I stumbled on an interesting and unexpected identity when looking for a simpler summation technique for inverse kinementics. Basically, I was trying to find a simpler way of summing IK vectors for some particular armature (like a tentacle or multi-branch armature on a robot). This question doesn't have to do with IK, but I accidentally calculated an identity rule I've not been able to attach to any other identity rule in trigonometry. This is the XPlore code that graphs the identity: [The trig set is in degrees, not radians] My question is: Is there an existing trig identity or rule (or set of iedntities or rules) that explains why the above functional set works? Basically the "law" that it asserts is: It's not an important question, just something that's been bugging me for a while. Thanks for looking, --CM |
| Mar9-12, 05:14 PM | #2 |
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Also, to avoid confusing the two meanings of 'x', you may want to express the left-hand side as sum[t=0 to x](sin(t)) ; 'x' is the limit of the sum, not really the argument to sin(). The x's in the right-hand side are correct, as they mean the same value of 'x' as the limit of the sum in the left-hand side. So, if I get you right, the conjecture is[tex]\sum_{t=0}^x \sin t = \left( \sum_{t=0}^{180} \sin t \right) \sin^2(x/2) + (\sin x)/2[/tex]with the arguments in degrees, not radians. The two overlapping curves (left-hand side, right-hand side) looking like this, for x=0 to 180:
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| Mar9-12, 05:21 PM | #3 |
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Hi,
Let [itex]x \in \mathbb R, n \in \mathbb N[/itex]. I'll be using radians instead of degrees, so I'll show that we have : [tex]\sum_{k=0}^n \sin k = f(\pi) \sin^2\left(\dfrac{x}{2}\right)+\dfrac{\sin x}{2}[/tex] Where : [itex]f(n) = \displaystyle\sum_{k=0}^n \sin k[/itex] (NB: that expression isn't yet defined on all real numbers and more particularly on [itex]n=\pi[/itex], but it will be as soon as we get another expression of it). We have : [tex]f(n) = \sum_{k=0}^n \text{Im}(e^{ik}) = \text{Im}\left(\sum_{k=0}^n e^{ik}\right) = \text{Im}\left(\sum_{k=0}^n (e^{i})^k\right)[/tex] And since [itex]e^i \neq 1[/itex], applying the formula for the sum of a geometric sequence gives : [tex]f(n) = \text{Im}\left(\dfrac{(e^i)^{n+1}-1}{e^i-1}\right) = \text{Im}\left(\dfrac{e^{i(n+1)}-1}{e^i-1}\right)[/tex] By applying half angle formulas : [tex]f(n) = \text{Im}\left(\dfrac{e^{i(n+1)/2}\cdot 2i\sin\left(\dfrac{n+1}{2}\right)}{e^{i/2}\cdot 2i\sin(1/2)}\right)[/tex] After simplifying we finally get : [tex]f(n) = \dfrac{\sin\left(\dfrac{n+1}{2}\right) \sin\left(\dfrac{n}{2}\right)}{\sin\left(\dfrac{1}{2}\right)}[/tex] That's a quite "simple" expression that only uses products, that naturally extends [itex]f(n)[/itex] to real numbers. I'll now show that the quantity [itex]f(x)[/itex] is exactly equal to [itex]f(\pi) \sin^2\left(\dfrac{x}{2}\right) + \dfrac{\sin x}{2}[/itex] for all [itex]x \in \mathbb R[/itex]. According to the expression of [itex]f(x)[/itex] obtained above, we have : [tex]f(\pi) = \dfrac{\sin\left(\dfrac{\pi+1}{2}\right) }{\sin\left(\dfrac{1}{2}\right)} = \dfrac{\cos\left(\dfrac{1}{2}\right)}{\sin\left( \dfrac{1}{2}\right)}[/tex] Thus : [tex]f(\pi) \sin^2\left(\dfrac{x}{2}\right) + \dfrac{\sin x}{2} = \dfrac{\cos\left(\dfrac{1}{2}\right)\sin^2\left( \dfrac{x}{2}\right) }{\sin\left( \dfrac{1}{2}\right)}+\dfrac{\sin x}{2} = \\ \dfrac{2\cos\left( \dfrac{1}{2}\right)\sin^2\left( \dfrac{x}{2}\right) + \sin\left( \dfrac{1}{2}\right)\left[2\sin\left(\dfrac{x}{2}\right)\cos\left( \dfrac{x}{2}\right)\right]}{2\sin\left( \dfrac{1}{2}\right)} = \\\dfrac{\sin\left(\dfrac{x}{2}\right)\left[\cos\left(\dfrac{1}{2}\right) \sin\left(\dfrac{x}{2}\right) + \sin\left(\dfrac{1}{2}\right)\cos\left(\dfrac{x}{2}\right)\right]}{\sin\left(\dfrac{1}{2}\right)} = \\\dfrac{\sin\left(\dfrac{x}{2}\right) \sin\left(\dfrac{x+1}{2}\right)}{\sin\left(\dfrac{1}{2}\right)} = f(x)[/tex] You just need to change from radians to degrees and it's done. |
| Mar9-12, 05:40 PM | #4 |
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Interesting IdentityEdit: On second thought, the technique is beautiful but there has to be an error here. [itex]\sum_{k=0}^n \text{Im}(e^{ik})[/itex] is not the same as [itex]\sum_{k=0}^n \text{Im}(e^{ik \pi/180})[/itex], which was what the OP had in mind, regardless of whether you later extend the definition for a real n: "mind the step" ! Edit2: Ah, you already said that. "You just need to change from radians to degrees and it's done." - i.e. Repeat the proof, this time with a pi/180 multiplier. When will I learn to read posts to the end. |
| Mar10-12, 03:11 AM | #5 |
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So, if I followed right, you end up with[tex]
f(n) = \frac{\sin\left(\frac{\pi n}{360}\right) \sin\left(\frac{\pi(n+1)}{360}\right)} {\sin\left(\frac{\pi}{360}\right)} [/tex]which, after expanding the sum of sines, and using a half-angle formula again, ends up in[tex] f(n) = \frac{\sin^2\left(\frac{\pi n}{360}\right)}{\tan\left(\frac{\pi}{360}\right)} + \frac{\sin\left(\frac{\pi n}{180}\right)}2 [/tex]so that[tex] f(180) = \frac 1 {\tan\left(\frac{\pi}{360}\right)} [/tex]from which the conjecture[tex] f(n) = f(180) \sin^2(\pi n/360) + (\sin \pi n/180)/2 [/tex]follows. |
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