Question on the form of a vertex operator in a proofby Schure Tags: cft, representation, vertex operator, virasoro 

#1
Apr2312, 09:43 AM

P: 1

Ok, never mind  I decided to find the solution in a different way.. This is a little too specialized anyway. (Is there a way to delete the thread?)
I am reading paper [1] and I found that formula (33), [tex]\psi(xy)\psi^*(y)=\frac 1{x^{1/2}x^{1/2}}\exp\left(\sum_n\frac{(xy)^ny^n}{n}\alpha_{n}\right)\exp\left(\sum_n\frac{y^{n}(xy)^{n}}n\alpha_n\right)[/tex] is almost in accordance to its alleged source [2, Theorem 14.10], except for the factor at the front, namely, [tex]\frac1{x^{1/2}x^{1/2}}.[/tex] Does anyone know where that comes from? Probably this comes from the shift of coordinates that happens when Eskin and Okounkov use halfintegers for the indices in the infinite wedge representation, instead of the usual whole integers. But I have not found the way to fully justify the term using this. I'd really appreciate a hint! Thanks! Schure [1] A. Eskin and A. Okounkov, Pillowcases and quasimodular forms, http://arxiv.org/pdf/math/0505545.pdf [2] Kac, Infinite dimensional Lie algebras, 3rd edition 



#2
Apr2312, 10:17 AM

Sci Advisor
HW Helper
P: 1,322

Do stick around Schure, it's good to have some specialized discussion now and again. I find it a nice change of pace from the nth iteration of interpreting quantum mechanics, the twin paradox, or "is string theory science?"
There are some very knowledgeable people who hang out here. 


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