courtrigrad
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Let's say you want to find the intermediate value [tex]\xi[/tex] of the mean value theorem of the integral calculus for:
(a)[tex]\int^b_a 1 \ dx[/tex]
(b)[tex]\int^b_a x \ dx[/tex]
(c)[tex]\int^b_a x^n \ dx[/tex]
(d)[tex]\int^b_a \frac{dx}{x^2}[/tex]
Using the Mean Value Theorem we know that [tex]a \leq \xi \leq b[/tex] and [tex]\mu = f(\xi)[/tex] following from:
[tex]\int^b_a f(x) \ dx = \mu(b-a)[/tex] where [tex]m \leq \mu \leq M[/tex] and [tex]m, M[/tex] are the least and greatest values of [tex]f(x)[/tex].
Hence [tex]\int^b_a x \ dx = (b-a) f(\xi)[/tex] because [tex]dx = b-a[/tex]. So [tex]f{(\xi) = \frac{(b-a)(b+a)}{2} \times \frac{1}{b-a} = \frac{a+b}{2}[/tex] Is this right? I am not sure because I think this is for [tex]f(\xi)[/tex] but I want [tex]\xi[/tex]. Or are they the same thing?
Thanks for any help

(a)[tex]\int^b_a 1 \ dx[/tex]
(b)[tex]\int^b_a x \ dx[/tex]
(c)[tex]\int^b_a x^n \ dx[/tex]
(d)[tex]\int^b_a \frac{dx}{x^2}[/tex]
Using the Mean Value Theorem we know that [tex]a \leq \xi \leq b[/tex] and [tex]\mu = f(\xi)[/tex] following from:
[tex]\int^b_a f(x) \ dx = \mu(b-a)[/tex] where [tex]m \leq \mu \leq M[/tex] and [tex]m, M[/tex] are the least and greatest values of [tex]f(x)[/tex].
Hence [tex]\int^b_a x \ dx = (b-a) f(\xi)[/tex] because [tex]dx = b-a[/tex]. So [tex]f{(\xi) = \frac{(b-a)(b+a)}{2} \times \frac{1}{b-a} = \frac{a+b}{2}[/tex] Is this right? I am not sure because I think this is for [tex]f(\xi)[/tex] but I want [tex]\xi[/tex]. Or are they the same thing?
Thanks for any help
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