Is there a simpler explanation for the equation \omega=\frac{2\pi}{T}=2\pi f?

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Discussion Overview

The discussion centers around the equivalence of the equation \(\omega=\frac{2\pi}{T}=2\pi f\), specifically exploring the relationship between angular velocity, period, and frequency in the context of circular motion and other periodic phenomena.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification
  • Technical explanation
  • Exploratory

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions how angular velocity can be equivalent to both \(\frac{2\pi}{T}\) and \(2\pi f\), seeking clarity on the relationship between these terms.
  • Another participant suggests that understanding circular motion with constant angular velocity can provide insight into the equivalence of these equations.
  • A clarification is made that frequency is indeed related to circular motion, with the period \(T\) being the inverse of frequency \(\nu\), and that all equations presented are valid for circular motion.
  • A later reply introduces a broader interpretation of frequency, suggesting it can apply metaphorically to various repeating phenomena beyond circular motion.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants generally agree on the equivalence of the equations in the context of circular motion, but there is some exploration of the broader implications and interpretations of frequency, indicating a nuanced discussion without a definitive consensus on all aspects.

Contextual Notes

Some assumptions about the definitions of angular velocity, period, and frequency may not be explicitly stated, and the discussion touches on the metaphorical application of frequency, which could lead to varying interpretations.

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I saw this on Wikipedia
[tex]\omega=\frac{2\pi}{T}=2\pi f = v/r[/tex]

What I don't understand is [tex]\omega= \\ \frac{2\pi}{T}=2\pi f[/tex]
How can they be equivilant?

Thanks
 
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THINK OF THE CIRCULAR MOVEMENT WITH CONSTANT ANGULAR VELOCITY...It will enlighten you.And a bit of trigonometry +geometry woudln't hurt at all...

Daniel.
 
Let me clarify my question:
How can angular velocity be equivilant to 2pi divided by time in seconds and also equivilant to 2pi x hertz (in seconds obviously)? Isn't frequency dealing with circular motion revolutions per second?
 
Last edited:
Of course it is.That's what i suggested.
[tex]T=\frac{1}{\nu}[/tex]

[tex]T=\frac{2\pi}{\omega}[/tex]

[tex]\omega =2 \pi \nu[/tex]

All of them are valid for circular motion...And completely equivalent...

WHAT IS ANGULAR VELOCITY...?

Daniel.
 
ya, ya. I wasn't doubting they weren't equivilant. I just didnt understand why. I see it now though. Thanks man.
 
Notice though that the so called "circular motion" which frequency must deal with would rather to be thought of metaphoricly. Circular as in a repeation of a certain entity and motion in the sense of things altering as the function of another variable. We may very well measure the frequency of people taking their dogs out on a walk or the frequency of wagons appearing on a merry go round wheel as the function of the distance along it's rim.
 

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