Understanding the Proof of X & Y Connected Topological Spaces: A Deeper Look

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the proof that the product of two connected topological spaces, X and Y, denoted as X ⊗ Y, is also connected. Participants are exploring the reasoning behind the proof presented in class, particularly focusing on the construction of a continuous function mapping to a discrete space.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the use of a continuous function f:X ⊗ Y → {0,1} and question the rationale behind proving that this function is constant. There is also exploration of the implications of homeomorphisms and the preservation of connectedness.

Discussion Status

Some participants express initial confusion but later indicate a better understanding of the proof. Questions remain regarding the choice of the discrete space {0,1} as the target for the function, with some participants suggesting that it simplifies the characterization of connectedness.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating through the proof's steps and the underlying assumptions, particularly regarding the properties of connected spaces and the implications of mapping to a discrete space.

Oxymoron
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If [itex]X[/itex] and [itex]Y[/itex] are two connected topological spaces then so is [itex]X \otimes Y[/itex].

I want to understand the proof of this theorem but I am having some difficulties. Even though we went over it in class, it is still unclear to me.

The professor constructed this continuous function:

[tex]f:X\otimes Y \rightarrow \{0,1\}[/tex]

Where [itex]\{0,1\}[/itex] is a discrete topological space. Then he shows that [itex]f[/itex] is constant. He then claimed that [itex]\{x\} \otimes Y[/itex] is homeomorphic with [itex]Y[/itex] hence this subspace ([itex]\{x\}\otimes Y[/itex]) is connected - since [itex]Y[/itex] is.

Now this does not make sense to me and I wouldn't be suprised if it didn't make sense to any of you. If you think you have a better way of explaining the proof (it doesn't have to be this one) then I would appreciate the effort.

Im not sure exactly why one would begin by setting up a continuous function which maps points in the product space [itex]X \otimes Y[/itex] to either 0 or 1 in the discrete topological space, then claim that the function constant - then go on to show that [itex]\{x\} \otimes Y[/itex] is homeomorphic to [itex]Y[/itex].??
 
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Where [itex]\{0,1\}[/itex] is a discrete topological space. Then he shows that [itex]f[/itex] is constant. He then claimed that [itex]\{x\} \otimes Y[/itex] is homeomorphic with [itex]Y[/itex] hence this subspace ([itex]\{x\}\otimes Y[/itex]) is connected - since [itex]Y[/itex] is.

Actually come to think of it, I do understand this.

Im just not sure of why this is the correct procedure to proving that the product space is connected.
 
Hmmm, perhaps it is because if one finds a concrete homeomorphism between the product space to a pre-determined connected topological space, then since the homeomorphism preserved topological structure, the product space is therefore connected? Could this be the reason?
 
I think you may have misunderstood what he was saying. Of course, [itex]\{x\} \times Y[/itex] is homeomorphic to Y: the function f(x,y)= y is clearly continuous with a continuous inverse f-1(y)= (x,y).
That being true, since Y is connected, so is [itex]\{x\} \times Y[/itex]. A continuous function maps connected sets to connected sets so any continuous function must map [itex]\{x\} \times Y[/itex] to either {0} or {1}- those are the only connected subsets of {0, 1} with the discreet topology.
Now, do same with [itex]X \times \{y\}[/itex]- and observe that any y will be matched with every x, any x with every y: f must map all of [itex]X \times Y[/itex] into a connected set: either {0} or {1} and therefore f is a constant.
Your professor is not first proving that f must be constant and then that f map [itex]X \times Y[/itex] to a connected set, he is first proving that f maps [itex]X\times Y[/itex] to a connected set and then using that to prove that f must be constant.
 
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Thanks Halls once again. I understand it now.

However, one small question. Why choose {0,1} as the target space for f? I need motivation for the choice of {0,1}. Why not X or Y or some other space? Is it because {0,1} is easy to work with? I am not sure.
 
Oxymoron said:
Thanks Halls once again. I understand it now.
However, one small question. Why choose {0,1} as the target space for f? I need motivation for the choice of {0,1}. Why not X or Y or some other space? Is it because {0,1} is easy to work with? I am not sure.
The latter reason. He wanted a disconnected space to map to where it was easy to characterize when the image of another space was disconnected.
 
Perfect. Exactly what I thought (I couldn't be sure). Thanks hyper.
 

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