I'll admit my hazy terminology reflects my hazy understanding. At any rate, what I'm currently trying to do at the most general level is tie together what seem to me to be unrelated symnols of amplitude. The first symbol being that it determines the probability, the second that it can be the...
By radius and function I mean amplitude and wavefunction and I am talking about the x hat and p hat operators etc which scale the amplitude by the eigenvalue and thus seem to alter the way these would multiply.
When we multiply psi sub x, psi sub y, psi sub z and psi sub t together to get a function of all four variables, does each separate wavefunction have a radius of one such that the radius is unchanged after the multiplication or is their radius far smaller than one? Secondarily, can this...
In the Dirac equation, the wave-function is broken into four wave-functions in four entries in a column of a matrix. Since there are four separate versions of the wave-function, does each version have the spin angular momentum of h-bar/2? This seems overly simplistic. How does spin angular...
Alright, I've seen natural units used many times, but I've always found that confusing because I've heard that photons don't travel through time, but apparently I was just being confused by the popsci.Thanks for the answers.
It is confusing to me because if there were theoreticaly (though impossibly) a massless fermion in the Dirac equation then seemingly it would be traveling at C and through time and phase by my clearly flawed understanding.
Well, if youll permit me to revise the question a bit, Ill ask about minowki spacetime. When we say that a particle doesn't pass through time, are we really saying that it doesn't pass through spacetime. I am confused about how that's being defined. For example if a photon had a change in time...
If a photon doesn't travel through time (if there is no internal change by one definition of time) then I would expect a photon not to have a changing phase as that seems to count as a timeable internal change. Is this the case?
Well, I may have worded it wrong, but it's an honest question. If force changes momentum, isn't it necessarily the case that fundamental forces are going to alter the momentum of particles. How then could the particle not experience a change in its momentum operator over time?
If energy is ihw and p is ihk, can force be written as derivatives of these? Might the fundamental forces just be some patterned change in the change of the wave functions of Dirac's equation?
Edit: the title should be "Time derivative of ihk" but I can't edit the title.