Recent content by hasanhabibul

i have some question about lagrangian ...here are those 1) what is the physical meaning of L=0 .. from wiki ..i have found .."The Lagrangian, L, of a dynamical system is a function that summarizes the dynamics of the system." that means when L=0 ..the system has no dynamics ..as far as i...

if u keep six +q charges in the six corner of a cube ...and keep a +q charge suspended in the midair ...then certainly the chage will leak through the cube ...my question is where is the potantial leakage of the cube for the system...

i have the solution manual ... i have downloaded it form gigapedia...but in the solution manual it did not describe ...only they had given the answer ...can u explain??

can anyone pleasezzzz help me by answering elaborately Problem 3.2 ... ...consider the cubical arrangement of fixed charges in Fig. 3.4. It looks, off hand, as though a positive charge at the center would be suspended in midair, since it is repelled away from each corner. Where is the leak...

from the second law of Newton we know... applied force is proportional to the change of momentum...that means F= k( mv-mu) where k is constant ...from here now proof F=ma

I can easily picture shai4 is perpendicular to shai5 ... But is it also Perpendicular to shai100? Then it makes me difficult to picture up.

I know about orthogonality of two vectors... Does it contain more?

shai n and shai m are mutually orthogonal ...where n and m can any numerical value...but i can't imagine it how they can be perpendicular to one another ... (to me the worst thing is to think shai4 and shai100 are perpendicular) and what is the advantage or reason of it...can anyone help me to...

why reflection coefficient R=1 in step potential though there happens transmission also as a negative exponential when E<V0

what actually happens physically ...when we make transpose of a matrix...and in unitary transformation we transpose the matrix and take the conjugate...physically what type of change happens in it.

why u r using r^2..it is just to make the whole thing dimestionless or any other physics in it..??

what is the theory behind ...if close integral of a expression is zero..then the expression is itself zero

why solid angle is A/r^2 ...why is this r^2...has it any similarity with s=rtheta??please help me

can anyone give me a link or any other way where i will get all the solution of halliday resnick krane book(quetsion part is a must)...it would be better if i got it bcoz my gre exam is knocking at the door...pleasez help me to solve the quetsion part of this book or tell me about other...

we know...when a source is running towards the listener...the wavelenth of sound become small and number of waves inceases...as far as i know ..the logic behind is..when a source runs..then waves become congested in a small distance between source and listener...it is so far so ridiculous to me...