Recent content by Kindayr

What if I re-index so that n\in \mathbb{N} so that d_0=e_0, d_1=e_1, d_2=e_{-1},\dots. Then by Bessel's inequality we have \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}|(f,d_n)|^2\le \parallel f\parallel ^{2}<\infty. Hence \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}|(f,d_n)|^2 converges absolutely and whence (f,d_n)\to 0 and thus (f,e_n)\to\ 0...

What should I be careful with? Does L^2-convergence not imply absolute convergence? Sorry, just a little confused by your statement.

Yep we have. Could I say that: Since \{e_n\} is complete it follows that f=\lim_{n\to\infty} \sum_{m=-n}^{n}(f,e_m)e_m. Thus, the latter sum converges and hence \lim_{n\to\infty}\sum_{m=-n}^{n}|(f,e_m)|^{2}<\infty. Thus |(f,e_m)|^2 \to 0 so |(f,e_m)|\to 0 and whence (f,e_m)\to 0, as required...

Wait, if {e_n} is complete, then \lim_{n\to\infty}\sum_{m=-n}^{n}(f,e_m)e_m converges to f absolutely, so the coefficients necessarily converge to zero. Would this work?

Homework Statement Let e_{n}(t)= \frac{1}{ \sqrt{2\pi}}\cdot e^{int} for n\in\mathbb{Z} and -\pi\le t\le\pi. Show that for any f\in L^{2}[-\pi,\pi] we have that (f,e_{n})=\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}f(t)\cdot e^{-int}dt\to0 as |n|\to \infty. The Attempt at a Solution I want to use dominant convergence...

I know that thinking a R-module is simply a ring R acting on a set (following the usual axioms), would it be safe to think of an R-algebra as the ring R acting on another ring? This may seem convoluted, but I'm just having a little trouble getting through all the different definitions of an...

Thanks for the help! I got it.

We have 0= 1\otimes 0 = 1\otimes 12= 12(1\otimes 1)=12\otimes 1=(2\otimes 1)+ (10\otimes 1)=(2\otimes 1)+0=2\otimes 1. Hence, m\otimes 1 = k(2\otimes 1)=0.

Actually, I guess that doesn't really prove anything since it isn't assumed that \phi is injective. Hrmm...

Well it is trivial if m=0, so suppose m\neq 0 even. Then it follows that m=2k hence m \otimes 1 = 2k\otimes 1 = 2(k\otimes 1) Hence, for any morphism of \mathbb{Z}-modules \phi : (\mathbb{Z}_{10}\otimes_{\mathbb{Z}}\mathbb{Z}_{12})\to \mathbb{Z}_{2}, it follows that...

yepp 1 \otimes 10 = 10(1\otimes 1)=10\otimes 1 = 0\otimes 1=0.

Homework Statement Show that \mathbb{Z}_{10}\otimes_{\mathbb{Z}}\mathbb{Z}_{12} \cong \mathbb{Z}_{2} The Attempt at a Solution Clearly, for any 0\neq m\in\mathbb{Z}_{10} and 0\neq n \in \mathbb{Z}_{12} we have that m\otimes n = mn(1\otimes 1), and if either m=0 or n=0 we have that m\otimes n =...

omg how do i call myself a math major. thank you.

Homework Statement Let H be a Hilbert space. Prove \Vert x \Vert = \sup_{0\neq y\in H}\frac{\vert (x,y) \vert}{\Vert y \Vert} The Attempt at a Solution First suppose x = 0. Then we have \sup_{0\neq y\in H}\frac{\vert (x,y) \vert}{\Vert y \Vert} = \sup_{0\neq y\in H}\frac{\vert (0,y)...

Algebraic Topology Algebraic Geometry I Linear Algebraic Groups Functional Analysis II Rings and Modules Field Theory Commutative Algebra Lie Algebras Differential Equations Algebraic Geometry II I bet you wouldn't guess that I'm applying to an algebra group for graduate studies...