Tensor Product of \mathbb{Z}_{10} and \mathbb{Z}_{12} with a Surprising Result

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the tensor product of the groups \(\mathbb{Z}_{10}\) and \(\mathbb{Z}_{12}\), specifically exploring the assertion that \(\mathbb{Z}_{10}\otimes_{\mathbb{Z}}\mathbb{Z}_{12} \cong \mathbb{Z}_{2}\). Participants are examining properties of the tensor product and its implications in the context of module theory.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss specific cases, such as proving that \(1\otimes 10=0\) and whether \(m\otimes 1\) is zero for even \(m\). There are inquiries about the implications of these results in the context of \(\mathbb{Z}\)-modules and abelian groups.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing examples and questioning assumptions. Some guidance has been offered regarding the properties of the tensor product, but no consensus has been reached on the overall conclusion.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working within the framework of algebraic structures, specifically \(\mathbb{Z}\)-modules, and are considering the implications of their findings on the properties of the tensor product.

Kindayr
Messages
159
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


Show that \mathbb{Z}_{10}\otimes_{\mathbb{Z}}\mathbb{Z}_{12} \cong \mathbb{Z}_{2}

The Attempt at a Solution


Clearly, for any 0\neq m\in\mathbb{Z}_{10} and 0\neq n \in \mathbb{Z}_{12} we have that m\otimes n = mn(1\otimes 1), and if either m=0 or n=0 we have that m\otimes n = 0\otimes 0.

I just don't know how to finish it.

I'm just working through Vakil's Algebraic Geometry monograph for fun, and this seemingly trivial question is bothering me.

Thank you for any help!
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
Can you prove that 1\otimes 10=0?
 
yepp

1 \otimes 10 = 10(1\otimes 1)=10\otimes 1 = 0\otimes 1=0.
 
What about m\otimes 1. Can you prove that this is 0 for even m?
 
micromass said:
What about m\otimes 1. Can you prove that this is 0 for even m?

Well it is trivial if m=0, so suppose m\neq 0 even. Then it follows that m=2k hence m \otimes 1 = 2k\otimes 1 = 2(k\otimes 1)

Hence, for any morphism of \mathbb{Z}-modules \phi : (\mathbb{Z}_{10}\otimes_{\mathbb{Z}}\mathbb{Z}_{12})\to \mathbb{Z}_{2}, it follows that \phi(m\otimes1)=2\phi(k\otimes 1)=0\in\mathbb{Z}_{2}.

Also, another question, if we're dealing with \mathbb{Z}-modules, we can treat them as abelian groups. So what would the tensor product of \mathbb{Z}-modules translate to for abelian groups?
 
Actually, I guess that doesn't really prove anything since it isn't assumed that \phi is injective. Hrmm...
 
Try the following for example:

2\otimes 1=12\otimes 1=0

As for your other question. The tensor product of abelian groups is exactly defined as the tensor product of \mathbb{Z}-modules.
 
micromass said:
Try the following for example:

2\otimes 1=12\otimes 1=0

As for your other question. The tensor product of abelian groups is exactly defined as the tensor product of \mathbb{Z}-modules.

We have 0= 1\otimes 0 = 1\otimes 12= 12(1\otimes 1)=12\otimes 1=(2\otimes 1)+ (10\otimes 1)=(2\otimes 1)+0=2\otimes 1.

Hence, m\otimes 1 = k(2\otimes 1)=0.
 
Thanks for the help!

I got it.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
15
Views
4K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
1K
  • · Replies 12 ·
Replies
12
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
3K
  • · Replies 13 ·
Replies
13
Views
3K
  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
Replies
2
Views
3K