Recent content by pam

All non-degenerate evectors are orthogonal.

The spin zero state is chosen to be orthogonal to the spin one state.

You can usually write a cross-section formula in terms of invariants times simple kinematic factors, making going between the cm and the lab relatively easy.

Much of special relativity requires only algebra. Matrices would help. General relativity requires everything, which is why Einstein needed math helpers.

If d1<d2 and the distance between (t) is << d1, then it is appropriate to use the smaller area. The part of the larger plate beyond d1, will have no charge on it. If t is large, it gets quite complicated.

The velocity in v=f*lambda is the wave velocity of a wave. The velocity in 2 is the velocity of particle in de Broglie's conjecture for the wavelength of the wave function associated with the particle's motion.

It is actually the wave velocity that equals c/n.

In this sense, classical EM is a quantum theory, with A^\mu being the wave function of a photon.

The AM number and mine differ by a factor 2pi. That is because mine is for k=1/lambda, with k in cm^-1, and AM is for p=2pi/lambda with p in cm^-1. You have to decide whether you are using k or p.

In 1D, the wave function can be finite at the origin, and can always decrease monotonically to zero at infinity. In 2D or 3D, the "equivalent 1D" wave function is u=\sqrt{r}\psi for 2D or u=r\psi for 3D. In either case, u must equal zero at the origin. This requires a strong enough...

A number I use is that 1=1.932 keV-Angstroms.

The TP is best dispensed with by plotting the trajectories on a space-time diagram. In your case it is clear that they each have the same overall distance, defined as \int\sqrt{dt^2-dx^2}.

They are either talking about the relative permeability (mu/muzero) in SI or the permeability in the gaussian system of units, each of which is 1 in most dielectrics. You wrote "the permeability of free space is 4*pi*10^-7 = 1.2566*10^-6 N/A^2 (SI units)". \mu_0/4\pi=10^{-7} is not an...

Since B(H) is not a single valued function, or any simple function, of H, you cannot do what you are trying.

"They" don't define the magnetic moment that way. We calculate from first principles that the magnetic moment of a current loop is I{\bf A}. \overline{A} as a vector is only defined on an open surface like that of a loop. I am afraid I don't understand your problem.