Recent content by userunknown

But if we take Vm=(μ0/4π)Ω⋅I as a potential, based on the analogy between B=-∇Vm and E = -∇V, there must be a magnetic potential energy formula based on magnetic scalar potential(Vm=(μ0/4π)Ω⋅I) . Right?

Thank you. I have just one more question. Can we derive magnetic potential energy formula from magnetic scalar potential, like we can do in electrostatics? I'm searching this topic, I have seen this formula, as magnetic potential formula: $$ U = -\vec m\cdot \vec B $$ Can we derive this...

This is confusing. You said: magnetic scalar potential is analogous with electric potential. But some sources say: magnetic vector potential is analogous with electrical potential. Thanks for the answer but which one is true?

There is an analogy between electric and gravitational potential energy. ## U_g = \frac {GmM}{r}## ## U_e = \frac {kqQ}{r}## What is the analogous formula in magnetostatics? Thanks...

OK. Thanks for help. In the Lorentz force, velocity of a test particle and force must be perpendicular because of the "law of conservation of energy". In the Biot-Savart Law, veloctiy of source particle and magnetic field must be perpendicular because of the "_____________". What would be...

Then it looks like there is a source for magnetism. Right? We need another way so, there is only one way left to define it. This is what you mean with "then the direction of the force could not be velocity dependent". Right? Magnetic field is not a physical thing. Right? Thank you all...

I don't understand what you are saying, sir. The magnetic field does depend on the velocity of the particle. It looks like you are talking against biot-savart law. Can you please give me any information about that or link... Also, thanks stevendaryl

Really? I have been looking for an answer like 5 days. Was that the answer? Ahhh, man. So let me show whether I got it right. Magnetic field could be defined as pointing to the direction of Lorentz force as well. But scientist wanted it to be like it that way. So there is no deeper meaning, no...

Relativity is the reason behind the cross product operation in magnetic field and force calculation. Right?

OK. I was trying to ask why magnetic field is $$\vec{v} \times \vec{r}$$ so it has a different direction from the magnetic force. Electric field and force have same direction, but this not true for magnetic field and force. Thanks...

According to relativity, If magnetic field is just an electric field viewed from a different frame of reference, why is the magnetic field around the wire is circular?