Recent content by ziyad

:smile: :smile: That wasn't so bad. It looks so simple now. Eye in the sky. thanks for ur help dude. I think that's the solution, i don't think degeneracy is needed. this is perfect as it stands. YAY!

actually both forms of H1 should have the same spectrum of eigenvalues.

actually for the second case. the structure can be thought of inside the solenoid. cause there is a perpendicular magnetic field. IN the first case the path was outside the solenoid and it didn't had magnetic field only vector potential. sso i think the question is how does an actual...

That these both r same e-ieR∙A/h_bar Ho eieR∙A/h_bar = H1 , H1 = (P + eA)2/2m + V(R) . one can be derived from another, or H1*phi(r) for arbitrary Phi(r) should give same result using either formulas. Sorry dude. I'm bugging u so much

This is getting really complicated :cry: a friend told me to look at H1*Phi(r) for arbitrary phi(r) where phi(r) is the wavefunction and both forms will give the same result. although I'm not sure how exactly

When we derive the phase difference in the classical experiment of the solenoid as shown below http://www.public.asu.edu/~ziyads/Aharonovbohm.pdf Now what if we change the path from the sorce to screen so it follows a rectangular path like this...

clive 'e' is the charge ok i wrote it wrong. here i scanned the equations http://www.public.asu.edu/~ziyads/hamiltonian.gif eye in the sky, yes ur correct. A is a constant vector. what is that equality called. and where can i read more about it. looking at the equation u mentioned...

Hey clive, yeah it has to be p-eA for it to be equal, but how is the third equation equal to the second.

I have a question regarding the Hamiltonian in a magnetic field. First Hamiltonian with potential V is given by Ho = (1/2m)*p^2 + V but if a vector potential A is also present then H1 = (1/2m)*(p+eA)^2 + V there is a way to write H1 interm of Ho H1 = exp(-ier.A) Ho exp(ier.A) where r...