News Why did trickle up economics work in Brazil?

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Brazil's government implemented a successful cash transfer program for the poor about seven years ago, which stimulated economic growth by increasing consumer spending in the real economy. This initiative contributed to the rise of a significant middle class and supported Brazil's position as a major player in aircraft manufacturing and ethanol production. In contrast, the U.S. struggles with economic inequality, where government stimulus primarily benefits the wealthy, leaving the general population with limited purchasing power. Critics argue that simply handing out money to the poor could lead to dependency rather than sustainable economic growth, emphasizing the need for job creation and infrastructure development. Overall, while Brazil's approach had positive outcomes, replicating such a model in the U.S. faces significant political and structural challenges.
  • #31
rcgldr said:
Increasing productivity per worker should tend to reduce the number of jobs, not increase them.

Increasing productivity per worker increases the number of jobs, not decrease them. New business creation is an important component of economic growth. But in order for new businesses to be created, they need workers. These workers cannot be freed up to go work for such new businesses unless the economy is able to gain the ability to do more with fewer workers. This then frees up workers for new jobs created by the new businesses.

Since the USA is a consumer based economy, more consumer goods need to be sold, enough so that the increase in sales offsets the increased in productivity per worker in order to create more jobs.

I'm not sure if I'm getting the logic to this. More goods and services do not need to be sold to "off-set" the increase in productivity per worker. Increasing worker productivity does quite a few things:

1) Allows new business creation, and hence new job creation
2) Allows the economy to produce more goods and services for a cheaper cost
3) Increases per capita incomes, so people can thus buy more stuff

The average American doesn't earn about 3X what the average Mexican does because they necessarilly work harder, it's because they are far more productive. In the 1800s, almost every American farmed. Today, less than 1% of America farms, yet even though America alone is about 5% of the global population, the 1% of our own little 5% produces enough food to feed the whole planet.

We use less land today to grow a significantly greater amount of food than what we did in say the 1930s. This is all because of productivity increases.

This in turn, means the working class needs more income to buy more consumer goods, but generally workers seldom realize the financial benefits of increased production per worker (such as automation in manufacturing).

They very much realize it. Perhaps not initially, but the overall economy certainly does. Productivity increases do not lead to wide-scale unemployment, they lead to a rising standard of living for everyone.

Outsourcing jobs hasn't had that effect so far. If a sufficient number of companies ship jobs overseas, laying off workers here as they create job overseas, then ultimately there's a reduction in jobs here in the USA. This is part of the current economic USA problem, but I'm not sure how big a role it's played.

No it isn't. This takes the assumption that there's a fixed supply of jobs in the global economy that countries have to compete over, and that in order for one country to gain jobs, another must lose jobs. But that's not how it works.

Jobs are like wealth. They can be created and destroyed. There is no zero-sum game. Outsourcing of jobs to a foreign country does not mean the USA loses said jobs. Outsourcing jobs does a few things:

1) Leads to cheaper products and services (which can lead to more job creation)

2) Allows the USA to concentrate on producing things it is good at (if we tried to produce everything here, we'd end up with lackluster quality of everything, because what we're good at doing would get hampered by us trying to produce things we're not so good at)

3) Serves as a form of efficiency: a foreign worker who can produce something with the same quality for a lot cheaper is like a machine that replaces workers in America because it can do the same job for equal quality, but cheaper, or even cheaper with better quality. Yet despite machines replacing humans in various jobs for over a century now, we haven't seen the economy permanently lose jobs with no new jobs created.

rcgldr said:
I see unions more as a system of checks and balances. The corporations control the job supply, the unions counter this by controlling the labor supply, but it's only worked in a few industies.

Corporations don't "control" the job supply, new jobs are created all the time by new businesses.

The post Reagan trend has been that the top 5% of USA society has been increasingly getting a larger percentage of the total income for the USA, while the middle class has been exeperiencing a decrease in real income.

You're making two fallacies here:

1) That American society is divided into fixed classes, i.e. the "poor," the "middle-class," and "the rich." The reality is that the country is divided into income brackets, not classes, which people freely move into and out of all the time. Many of the same people who are classified as "rich" or even "middle-class" now were amongst the "poor" twenty to thirty years ago. Most "rich" people did not start out rich and most "poor" people do not remain poor. Income is not distributed by some collective decision by society, it just means some people make more than others.

2) That there is a fixed amount of wealth and income in society, and that the rich class has been getting more and more of this income for themselves, thus shorting the middle-class and the poor. Again, that's not how it works. The economy creates wealth. The top 5% gaining a larger share of total income for the USA is likely because we have seen so much wealth creation over the past thirty years. There are a lot more wealthy and high-earning people now than before.

Real income per capita has overall been increasing: http://www.bea.gov/briefrm/percapin.htm

Wages can be stalled or declining, but wages are not incomes, they're a part of incomes, and the reason for their likely stalling or declining is because a larger and larger portion of people's income is having to be devoted to healthcare, which has been rising up in cost. We have a system that due to the tax and law makes it where most health insurance is provided through the employer as opposed to individually-purchased health insurance.

My opinion is that a progressive tax rate was a compenstating factor for this in the pre Reagan era,

You're viewing it that the economy is a zero-sum game, with a fixed supply of wealth, and thus "the rich" are hogging more of that wealth for themselves now since Reagan. A progressive tax system (which we actually still have BTW) was a way of taking some of that wealth away from "the rich" and redistributing it "back" to the "poor class" and "middle class" whom it was "taken" from.

But that's not how the system actually works. All Reagan's tax cuts meant is that those who worked hard got to keep more of their money (to a degree, as even though the rates were cut, some big loopholes were closed as well).

but a sudden change to the old tax rates would probably makes things worse in the short term. Smaller changes over time would work better. I don't see why Republicans, who want to reduce the deficit, were so opposed to eliminating the Bus tax cuts for the upper 2%, since this only meant a 4% increase in tax rate on income that exceeded $250,000, a relatively small increase, for those just above the $250,000 bracket, for example a couple making $275,000 after deductions would have only paid $1000 more in taxes, which I doubt would have a significant effect on their lifestyle.

It would have been a 4 percentage point increase, not a 4% increase. The actual increase would have been about 11.6%. One reason the Republicans didn't want to increase it is because historically, increasing taxes, provided revenues increase, only then leads to more spending. It also could hamstring the economy further.

Getting back to the original question, for some reason, a seed program to give money to the poor in Brazil contributed to creating a self-sustaining effect on improving it's economy. I'm curious as to why it worked there and why it wouldn't work elsewhere, or more genreally while trickle up would't work as well as Reagan's trickle down strategy.

I know this particular question was addressed to WhoWee, but just wanted to point out that Reagan never followed any "trickle-down" strategy (i.e., cut taxes for the rich, they'll spend the money, and the benefits will "trickle-down" to the rest of society). A trickle-down effect probably occurs to some degree when the wealthy spend money, but that was not the goal of Reagan's economic policies, and it has never been supported by any serious economist as far as I know (although quite a few politicians have mistakenly used the term).

The goal of supply-side economics is to increase the supply of goods and services in the economy, by encouraging investment. Prior to Reagan's tax cuts, the wealthy had all their wealth tied up in trusts and commodities to avoid taxes. With the cuts, a flood of money went into the stock and bond markets.
 
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  • #32
rcgldr said:
Venture capital is just an example. Other than jobs for brokers, how significant is job creation due to buying and selling of derivatives or stock?

That would be the argument against "cap and trade" credits as well - wouldn't it?

While derivatives are a largely unaddressed problem, they may not be as widely traded as you infer. As for stock, you are correct in that buying and selling doesn't necessarily create jobs. However, by tracking the performance, placing a value on the equity of the company, and making that equity available to investors - companies are able to use their stock as a type of currency. Public companies often use common stock to complete mergers, as a form of compensation, and as collateral for loans. Preferred stock is typically a safer investment, and bonds (until the recent GM situation) the safest. Derivates, by comparison, can be the riskiest.
 
  • #34
ThomasT said:
Yes, I'm somewhat misleadingly referring to the latter. Just as we are, somewhat misleadingly, presented with the notion that corporations and individuals pay a certain percentage of their profits in taxes when in fact they often pay quite a lot less.
Less than what? What's your source for what we are presented with and what is actually paid? Who is being misled? It seems to me that the only people being misled are those being convinced that rich people don't pay as much as others, as a percentage.

The http://www.cbo.gov/ftpdocs/88xx/doc8885/EffectiveTaxRates.shtml" greatly exceeds what many people on this forum believe, but I don't know if that's what you're referring to.
 
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  • #35
Al68 said:
Less than what? What's your source for what we are presented with and what is actually paid? Who is being misled? It seems to me that the only people being misled are those being convinced that rich people don't pay as much as others, as a percentage.

The http://www.cbo.gov/ftpdocs/88xx/doc8885/EffectiveTaxRates.shtml" greatly exceeds what many people on this forum believe, but I don't know if that's what you're referring to.

What your table does not show are the gross income values. If I deduct the payments for my five-million-dollar Lear Jet, that deduction is not seen as income. Poor people don't typically have tax shelters and exotic deductions, so you are comparing apples to oranges. Surely you must know this. Part of the trick to running any business is to maximize personal benefits in such a way that they are deductable. A Lear Jet would be an example of a personal benefit.
 
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  • #36
Ivan Seeking said:
What your table does not show are the gross income values. If I deduct the payments for my five-million-dollar Lear Jet, that deduction is not seen as income.
That is false. Those tables show total gross income before deductions, and effective tax rates.

If you're referring to rich people getting a free ride on a company jet, yeah that may slip though the cracks, but would not be a significant factor as far as those CBO numbers go.

The only thing about those tables that is debatable, IMO, is the methodology of who they attribute taxes to. Those tables assume, for example, that corporate income taxes are paid by the owners of the capital (stockholders), not consumers in the form of higher prices. And that the entire payroll tax is borne by the employee, instead of half-and-half with employer, as is often cited.

But their methodology is fully disclosed, so even that is not an issue, unless part of their data is taken out of context and misrepresented.
 
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  • #37
From the CBO reference above in definitions:
Measuring Income
This analysis focuses on households’ adjusted pretax comprehensive income. That measure includes all cash income (both taxable and tax-exempt), taxes paid by businesses (which are imputed to individuals, as noted above), employees’ contributions to 401(k) retirement plans, and the value of income received in-kind from various sources (such as employer-paid health insurance premiums, Medicare and Medicaid benefits, and food stamps).
 
  • #38
rcgldr said:
Increasing productivity per worker should tend to reduce the number of jobs, not increase them.
Only if the price of effected goods is inelastic, and even then only temporarily as old jobs are replaced with more new ones:
Library of Econnomics said:
If the demand for a product or service is price inelastic—that is, if a given percentage decrease in price results in a lower percentage increase in the quantity demanded—then rapid productivity improvement can result in workers having to leave the industry. The reason is that industry output, even if it has risen moderately, can now be produced with fewer workers. This eventually became true for grain farming, but not generally for computers, where the demand has been more price elastic. The relative price declines produced such a big increase in quantity demanded that industry employment has actually increased. But even in the case of grain farming, the falling food prices associated with the productivity improvement led automatically to increases in real income elsewhere. These increases eventually resulted in increased demand for other goods and services, leading to expansion of demand, employment, and output outside of agriculture.
http://www.econlib.org/library/Enc/Productivity.html
Examples besides agriculture include the mass production of the automobile replacing the horse and buggy (creating millions of jobs), telecommunications, etc
 
  • #39
CAC1001 said:
Increasing productivity per worker increases the number of jobs, not decrease them.
If all workers become more productive, then the near term effect is a decrease in the number of jobs needed to produce products at the current rate.

Companies will not hire new workers unless they anticipate a demand for new or more products, mostly consumer products in the case of the USA, and that requires that prices for existing products decline, or that consumer's income increases in order for the consumers to be able to buy the new products (assuming that increasing consumer debt isn't the source of new product demand).

Outsourcing of jobs to a foreign country does not mean the USA loses said jobs.
If it occurs on a large enough scale (all jobs in the extreme), then the long term effect is to raise the standard of living in the foreign country, and decrease the standard of living for those directly affected by the outsourcing of jobs.

Leads to cheaper products and services
Product pricing is mostly a case of supply and demand, not the cost of labor to make the product. In situations where start up cost is prohibitive, competition is limited or non-existant, so there's no price pressure on those products.

Yet despite machines replacing humans in various jobs for over a century now, we haven't seen the economy permanently lose jobs with no new jobs created.
The number of blue collar jobs in the USA has drastically diminshed over time because of automation. Few of these workers were able to learn new skills and transition into new jobs at near equal pay.

The top 5% gaining a larger share of total income for the USA is likely because we have seen so much wealth creation over the past thirty years. There are a lot more wealthy and high-earning people now than before.
It's the top 5%. The increase in number of people in the top 5% would correspond to the increase in total population, not an increase in percentage of high income people (that would be a different statistic). The relatively large gain by the top 5% is a reflection of USA economic policies, and part of the wealthy class has a lot of influence on economic policies via lobbyists and campaign donations.
 
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  • #40
Ivan Seeking said:
What your table does not show are the gross income values. If I deduct the payments for my five-million-dollar Lear Jet, that deduction is not seen as income. Poor people don't typically have tax shelters and exotic deductions, so you are comparing apples to oranges. Surely you must know this. Part of the trick to running any business is to maximize personal benefits in such a way that they are deductable. A Lear Jet would be an example of a personal benefit.

Are we overlooking the fact that the cash payments for use of the jet, or the purchase of the jet (lease or bank financing), flow back into the economy?

As for poor people needing tax deductions(?) - aren't poor people on the receiving end of tax money?
 
  • #41
https://www.physicsforums.com/showpost.php?p=3064424&postcount=38", it misses the point to say that "If all workers become more productive, then the near term effect is a decrease in the number of jobs needed to produce products at the current rate" [highlights mine], since the production rate very often does not stay constant following productivity increases. Given the price elasticity found in, say, expanding markets (such as computers), an increase in productivity is followed by a drop in price, which is followed by an increase in demand, which is followed by an increase supply volume, requiring the same net labor as initially. All of this occurred with nice side benefit that more people were able to acquire widgets (such as computers) due to the increased productivity.
 
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  • #42
mheslep said:
Given the price elasticity found in, say, expanding markets (such as computers), an increase in productivity is followed by a drop in price, which is followed by an increase in demand, which is followed by an increase supply volume, requiring the same net labor as initially.
(emph mine) This is true only for the creation a unit elastic good or service. Generally, it is only luxury items that command a better than unit elasticity, while most basic goods like food, fuel, housing, etc. have typically lower than unity demand.
 
  • #43
mheslep said:
https://www.physicsforums.com/showpost.php?p=3064424&postcount=38", it misses the point to say that "If all workers become more productive, then the near term effect is a decrease in the number of jobs needed to produce products at the current rate" [highlights mine], since the production rate very often does not stay constant following productivity increases. Given the price elasticity found in, say, expanding markets (such as computers), an increase in productivity is followed by a drop in price, which is followed by an increase in demand, which is followed by an increase supply volume, requiring the same net labor as initially. All of this occurred with nice side benefit that more people were able to acquire widgets (such as computers) due to the increased productivity.

yeah. being more productive means having more wealth. it's really as simple as that.
 
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  • #44
Gokul43201 said:
(emph mine) This is true only for the creation a unit elastic good or service. Generally, it is only luxury items that command a better than unit elasticity, while most basic goods like food, fuel, housing, etc. have typically lower than unity demand.
Yes exactly for basic goods like food, hence the long gone days of a mostly down-on-the-farm society. I disagree though with the 'only luxury' qualifier. A large share of the US economy consists of other than 'basic' goods production, to include computers and telecom (e.g. iPods, iPhones), and services such as entertainment, all of which have demonstrated marked dramatic volume increases due to elastic pricing. But in general any new market far short of saturation will likely see elastic pricing.

edit: scratch all that, as I'm essentially just restating, with less precision, my own reference up thread:
Econo library said:
If the demand for a product or service is price inelastic—that is, if a given percentage decrease in price results in a lower percentage increase in the quantity demanded—then rapid productivity improvement can result in workers having to leave the industry. The reason is that industry output, even if it has risen moderately, can now be produced with fewer workers. This eventually became true for grain farming, but not generally for computers, where the demand has been more price elastic. The relative price declines produced such a big increase in quantity demanded that industry employment has actually increased. But even in the case of grain farming, the falling food prices associated with the productivity improvement led automatically to increases in real income elsewhere. These increases eventually resulted in increased demand for other goods and services, leading to expansion of demand, employment, and output outside of agriculture.
 
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  • #45
rcgldr said:
If all workers become more productive, then the near term effect is a decrease in the number of jobs needed to produce products at the current rate.

If that was the case, then we'd see the unemployment rate spike with the constant innovation the economy experiences, which doesn't happen. You forget that while there is a decrease in the number of jobs needed for producing goods/services in certain industries, new jobs are constantly created to replace the old ones.

Companies will not hire new workers unless they anticipate a demand for new or more products, mostly consumer products in the case of the USA, and that requires that prices for existing products decline, or that consumer's income increases in order for the consumers to be able to buy the new products (assuming that increasing consumer debt isn't the source of new product demand).

If prices for existing products decline, that can be a signal that demand for a product may have decreased, not that demand is up. Or it could be a sign of a productivity increase. Depends on who is responding to who. If a new product comes out and doesn't sell well, and the price is cut in half, that's a sign of a lack of demand.

If it occurs on a large enough scale (all jobs in the extreme), then the long term effect is to raise the standard of living in the foreign country, and decrease the standard of living for those directly affected by the outsourcing of jobs.

Not when those affected by the outsourcing get new jobs to replace the outsourced ones.

Product pricing is mostly a case of supply and demand, not the cost of labor to make the product. In situations where start up cost is prohibitive, competition is limited or non-existant, so there's no price pressure on those products.

Product pricing definitely is influenced by supply/demand, but also by the cost to make the product.

The number of blue collar jobs in the USA has drastically diminshed over time because of automation. Few of these workers were able to learn new skills and transition into new jobs at near equal pay.

If that was the case, then we'd have seen the unemployment rate constantly going up and incomes per capita stalled.

It's the top 5%. The increase in number of people in the top 5% would correspond to the increase in total population, not an increase in percentage of high income people (that would be a different statistic). The relatively large gain by the top 5% is a reflection of USA economic policies, and part of the wealthy class has a lot of influence on economic policies via lobbyists and campaign donations.

It's a reflection of all the wealth created over the past few decades, which all of society gains from, via new products/services and job creation.
 
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  • #46
Brazil has become an economic powerhouse turning into one of the world’s hottest emerging markets.The world’s eighth biggest economy, Brazil has become the number one exporter of products such as coffee, sugar, poultry, beef, orange juice, ethanol and tobacco.Unscathed by the global financial crisis, Brazil remarkably finds itself on a better economic footing than before the international economic meltdown.Since 2003, almost 30 million Brazilians have joined the middle class with more than 20 million being lifted out of poverty.



http://www.wellgrowchinasourcing.com/"
 
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  • #47
rcgldr said:
If all workers become more productive, then the near term effect is a decrease in the number of jobs needed to produce products at the current rate.

CAC1001 said:
If that was the case, then we'd see the unemployment rate spike with the constant innovation the economy experiences, which doesn't happen.
Not a spike but with an increasingly larger percentage of retired workers, the percentage of workers versus total population in the USA has been declining for decades.

CAC1001 said:
... Not when those affected by the outsourcing get new jobs to replace the outsourced ones.
That only occurs if there are new jobs to replace the outsourced jobs, and if the affected people can learn the skills required for the new jobs. As I mentioned before, the number of blue collar jobs in the USA has drastically diminshed over time because of automation (and also outsourcing). Few of these workers were able to learn new skills and transition into new jobs at near equal pay.

rcgldr said:
The relatively large gain by the top 5% is a reflection of USA economic policies, and part of the wealthy class has a lot of influence on economic policies via lobbyists and campaign donations.
CAC1001 said:
It's a reflection of all the wealth created over the past few decades, which all of society gains from, via new products/services and job creation.
Except that a large part of society didn't share in that gain, most of that gain in wealth ended up with the top 5%.

Getting back to the main topic, I'd like to find out more about what happened to help Brazil's enonomy do so well, and what, if anything, learned from that could be applied to other countries.
 
  • #48
rcgldr said:
That only occurs if there are new jobs to replace the outsourced jobs, and if the affected people can learn the skills required for the new jobs.

This is usually the case.

As I mentioned before, the number of blue collar jobs in the USA has drastically diminshed over time because of automation (and also outsourcing). Few of these workers were able to learn new skills and transition into new jobs at near equal pay.

Yes they were, or the unemployment rate would have permantely spiked as mass groups of workers became permanetely unemployed.

Except that a large part of society didn't share in that gain, most of that gain in wealth ended up with the top 5%.

...which was from the production of goods and services that the rest of society bought, which is what made those people wealthy in the first place. They also enhanced productivity, which led to new job creation. So yes, all of society got wealthier.
 
  • #49
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  • #50
mheslep said:
Aside from the recent recession, where are you getting that from?
Unemployment doesn't include workers that have simply given up on trying to find jobs. My post was about the labor force versus the total population (mostly due to the number of retirees increasing). Try the Bureau of Labor Statistics if you want acccurate data. Labor force as a percentage of population has been decreasing since 2000. A chart from BLS showing the data, you can change the start and end dates:

http://data.bls.gov/PDQ/servlet/SurveyOutputServlet?data_tool=latest_numbers&series_id=LNS12300000

On a side note, before 1974, only the largest single income of a working couple could be considered for a home loan. This was changed by a law in 1974 to allow both incomes to be considered. Soon after this change, the prices of houses increased well beyond the rate of inflation, the number of working mothers increaed dramatically, as well as the inflation rate. Prior to 1974, a single lower middle class income was sufficient to support a typcial family, own a home, 1 or 2 cars, and a color tv. This is no longer possible in many urban areas in the USA.

rcgldr said:
That only occurs if there are new jobs to replace the outsourced jobs, and if the affected people can learn the skills required for the new jobs.
CAC1001 said:
This is usually the case.
Using the auto industry as an example, old workers were getting $28 per hour working on assembly lines. Despite increased productivity per worker, new workers earn about $14 per hour, 50% of the older wages. Very few of these people will be able to find $28 / hour jobs.

outsourcing jobs
USA supposedly gained 100,000 total jobs this month, less than the rate of population growth (about 150,000 new jobs per month are required to keep up with population increase in the USA). In the meantime the Chinese factories making iphones and similar products created about 300,000 jobs (this from CNN). So there is job growth, just not in the USA, at least in the case of manufacturing. Most of the job growth in the USA was related to low paying jobs in service and health care. In a consumer based economy, such as the USA, it's difficult to recover from the recession when a large perenctage of consumer goods are being manufactured outside the USA.
 
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  • #51
rcgldr said:
Using the auto industry as an example, old workers were getting $28 per hour working on assembly lines. Despite increased productivity per worker, new workers earn about $14 per hour, 50% of the older wages. Very few of these people will be able to find $28 / hour jobs.

USA supposedly gained 100,000 total jobs this month, less than the rate of population growth. In the meantime the Chinese factories making iphones and similar products created 300,000 jobs. So there is job growth, just not in the USA, at least in the case of manufacturing. Most of the job growth in the USA was related to low paying jobs in service and health care.

What are the hourly wages of manufacturing workers in Brazil and China - are any of them $14 per hour?
 
  • #52
WhoWee said:
What are the hourly wages of manufacturing workers in Brazil and China - are any of them $14 per hour?
Probably not, which was my point that outsourcing jobs tends to raise the standard of living in foreign countries, while lowering it in the USA.
 
  • #53
rcgldr said:
Using the auto industry as an example, old workers were getting $28 per hour working on assembly lines. Despite increased productivity per worker, new workers earn about $14 per hour, 50% of the older wages. Very few of these people will be able to find $28 / hour jobs.

Assembly workers seeing cuts in wages doesn't mean their incomes have gone down. Remember that the auto companies have a crushing burden in terms of pensions, healthcare, and other things they must provide for workers. So auto workers could very well see wages decline, yet increased incomes.

USA supposedly gained 100,000 total jobs this month, less than the rate of population growth (about 150,000 new jobs per month are required to keep up with population increase in the USA). In the meantime the Chinese factories making iphones and similar products created about 300,000 jobs (this from CNN). So there is job growth, just not in the USA, at least in the case of manufacturing. Most of the job growth in the USA was related to low paying jobs in service and health care. In a consumer based economy, such as the USA, it's difficult to recover from the recession when a large perenctage of consumer goods are being manufactured outside the USA.

What are you basing that last part on? Also, I would say it would likely be more difficult for the economy to recover if a large amount of the consumer goods were manufactured stateside becaue then everything would cost more.

As it is, the USA manufactures more than any other nation (although China is catching up), and our manufacturing sector continues to grow, but manufacturing has been declining as a percentage of the economy over the years, because the rest of the economy has grown faster. Manufacturing employment has declined over the years as well, even though we manufacture more and more.
 
  • #54
rcgldr said:
Probably not, which was my point that outsourcing jobs tends to raise the standard of living in foreign countries, while lowering it in the USA.

The standard of living has continued to increase in the USA for decades despite lots of outsourcing. What outsourcing does is to benefit both sides. If tech jobs get outsourced to say India, it raises the standard of living in India through the jobs and hence wealth created, meanwhile it raises the standard of living in the U.S. because of the cheaper products/services that this leads to.
 
  • #55
rcgldr said:
Unemployment doesn't include workers that have simply given up on trying to find jobs. My post was about the labor force versus the total population (mostly due to the number of retirees increasing). Try the Bureau of Labor Statistics if you want acccurate data. Labor force as a percentage of population has been decreasing since 2000. A chart from BLS showing the data, you can change the start and end dates:

http://data.bls.gov/PDQ/servlet/SurveyOutputServlet?data_tool=latest_numbers&series_id=LNS12300000
Yes I'm familiar; I was challenging the original claim that the labor force percentage has been "declining for decades" which is clearly not the case.

212vmgg.gif

(from '48)
http://data.bls.gov/PDQ/servlet/SurveyOutputServlet?data_tool=latest_numbers&series_id=LNS12300000
 

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  • #56
mheslep said:
I was challenging the original claim that the labor force percentage has been "declining for decades"
I was tired, should have written for the last decade, not for decades. Part of the change soon after 1974 was the increasing number of women in the work force. Part of the current trend is retiring baby boomers.
 
  • #58
WhoWee said:
That is a very significant decline - might be worthy of it's own thread?

it reminds me of another thread where the recent productivity of the market seemed to coincide with the computer revolution. PCs hit the scene about mid 80s i think.
 
  • #59
Proton Soup said:
it reminds me of another thread where the recent productivity of the market seemed to coincide with the computer revolution. PCs hit the scene about mid 80s i think.

Do you have a link to that thread (I'd be interested in reading it)?
 

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