Normalizing the wave function of a free particle

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SUMMARY

The normalization of the wave function for a free particle can be achieved using the Dirac delta function, specifically through the expression =\delta(x-x')/(2\pi)^{3/2}. Two primary methods are discussed: box normalization, which involves confining the particle in a finite volume and taking the limit as the volume approaches infinity, and delta function normalization. The wave function is given by psi(x) = A*e^ikx + B*e^-ikx, where k = sqrt(2mE/h^2). To normalize using the delta function, one must evaluate the integral of the wave function squared, which results in terms involving the delta function.

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  • Basic calculus skills for evaluating integrals.
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maethros
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Hello!

Can somebody tell me, how it is possible to normalize the wave function of a free particle using the Dirac delta function?

Thanks!
 
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There are two methods that are commonly used:
1. Box normalization. Space is assumed to be contained in an LXLXL box.
After calculating, say, a scattering amplitude, taking the limit L-->\infty
gives a ifntie result if done carefully.

2. Delta function normalization <x|x'>=\delta(x-x')/(2\pi)^{3/2}.
 
Meir Achuz said:
There are two methods that are commonly used:
1. Box normalization. Space is assumed to be contained in an LXLXL box.
After calculating, say, a scattering amplitude, taking the limit L-->\infty
gives a ifntie result if done carefully.

2. Delta function normalization <x|x'>=\delta(x-x')/(2\pi)^{3/2}.
How can i use the 2nd one this in this case? I have the wave function: psi(x) = A*e^ikx + B*e^-ikx with k = sqrt(2mE/h^2).
I think I can take A = 1, but then i don't know how to continue.
 
normailization is simple.
u have the wavefunction, all u do is square it and integrate, setting equal to 1
so in ur case, int[-inf to inf] A*e^ikx=A^2*e^2ikx=1
pull A^2 from the integral to get A^2 int[-inf to inf]e^2*ikxdx=1 for the first
1/A^2
 
valtorEN said:
normailization is simple.
u have the wavefunction, all u do is square it and integrate, setting equal to 1
so in ur case, int[-inf to inf] A*e^ikx=A^2*e^2ikx=1
pull A^2 from the integral to get A^2 int[-inf to inf]e^2*ikxdx=1 for the first
1/A^2

Thx, but I know how normalization normally works :rolleyes:

But not in this case: Free Particle and I HAVE TO use the DELTA FUNCTION.
 
Okay, so let me ask you what \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} dx e^{\imath (k - k&#039;) x} is. Once you figure that one out, I think you could probably normalize the wave function pretty well.
 
maethros said:
How can i use the 2nd one this in this case? I have the wave function: psi(x) = A*e^ikx + B*e^-ikx with k = sqrt(2mE/h^2).
I think I can take A = 1, but then i don't know how to continue.
What are you going to do with the wave function. If you are going to calculate reflection and transmission coefficients, you odn't have to normalize it.
 
Meir Achuz said:
What are you going to do with the wave function. If you are going to calculate reflection and transmission coefficients, you odn't have to normalize it.

I only want to know how I can normalize it using the Dirac delta function. That is all.
I never said that i want to calculate the reflection or transmission coefficient.
 
Your \int |psi|^2 will have four terms. Four each term use
\int exp{ikx-ik'x}=(2pi)^3\delta(k-k').
 

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