A proof for modular arithmetic theorem

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The discussion centers on proving the theorem that states a ≡ b (mod m) if and only if a mod m = b mod m, with a and b as integers and m as a positive integer. Initial attempts at the proof were critiqued for lacking precision and clarity, particularly in defining variables and distinguishing between equivalence and equality. After revisions, the proof improved by correctly establishing the implications of modular arithmetic and ensuring that the remainders fall within the appropriate range. The final proof correctly demonstrated both directions of the theorem, affirming the relationship between modular equivalence and the modulus operation. The importance of clarity and logical flow in mathematical proofs was emphasized throughout the discussion.
r0bHadz
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Homework Statement


Let a and b be integers, and let m be a positive integer. Then a ≡ b (mod m) if and only
if a mod m = b mod m.

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


By definition a ≡ b (mod m) => m| (a-b)

mx = a -b => mx + b = a => b = a mod m

b = a - mx => b = m(-x) + a => a = b mod m

a = (a mod m) mod m = a mod m => a=b => a mod m = b mod m

does this seem right?
 
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r0bHadz said:

Homework Statement


Let a and b be integers, and let m be a positive integer. Then a ≡ b (mod m) if and only
if a mod m = b mod m.

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


By definition a ≡ b (mod m) => m| (a-b)

mx = a -b => mx + b = a => b = a mod m

b = a - mx => b = m(-x) + a => a = b mod m

a = (a mod m) mod m = a mod m => a=b => a mod m = b mod m

does this seem right?

I'm sorry to say this is not a valid proof. First, note the difference between ##\equiv## and ##=## in this context. Note also that ##a \ mod \ m## is a non-negative integer in the range ##0## to ##m-1##.

In your proof, you have:

r0bHadz said:
b = a mod m

But, ##b## could be any integer and we could have ##b > m##, hence equality with ##a \ mod \ m## is impossible. Also, ##b## could be negative etc.

Also, a proof of an "if and only if" needs to be structured something like:

Let ##a \equiv b \ mod \ m \ \dots##.

Finally, you must be precise. You introduced ##x## without saying what ##x## was. Is it a real number, an integer, a positive integer?

In general, pure mathematics isn't about putting a few calculations together, it's about a precise, logical flow. This is something you need to try to develop.
 
r0bHadz said:

Homework Statement


Let a and b be integers, and let m be a positive integer. Then a ≡ b (mod m) if and only
if a mod m = b mod m.

I suggest you do the following implication first. Show that:

if a mod m = b mod m then a ≡ b (mod m)

Post that and then once you have done this, you can try the converse.
 
Pero what you wrote made a lot of sense, I've started the proof over again and this is what I got.

Let a ≡ b(mod m ) => m| (a-b) => a-b = mx for x ∈ ℤ

=> a = mx + b

*** if m|a and m|b => a = mp and b = mo for p,o∈ℤ then m| a-b so from m|(a-b) we know m|b

so b = mo + r
a = mx + b can be written as a = mx + (mo + r) => a = m(x+o) + r so

r = a mod m

Now I need to show that r = b mod m correct? Also is my proof starting to look at least a little better
 
r0bHadz said:
Pero what you wrote made a lot of sense, I've started the proof over again and this is what I got.

Let a ≡ b(mod m ) => m| (a-b) => a-b = mx for x ∈ ℤ

=> a = mx + b

*** if m|a and m|b => a = mp and b = mo for p,o∈ℤ then m| a-b so from m|(a-b) we know m|b

so b = mo + r
a = mx + b can be written as a = mx + (mo + r) => a = m(x+o) + r so

r = a mod m

Now I need to show that r = b mod m correct? Also is my proof starting to look at least a little better

Yes, this is looking better. You don't need to do the case where ##a, b \equiv 0 \ mod \ m## separately. But, you do need to specify that ##0 \le r < m##. And that, by definition, means that ##r = b \ mod \ m##.

If you tidy that up, you have the first implication. The converse should be simpler.

Note that this proof is a little bit more difficult than expected.
 
a≡b(mod m) => m | a-b => mx = a-b for x ∈ℤ

b = my + r and 0≤r<m by definition, so b mod m = r by definition

mx = a- (my + r) => mx + my + r = a => m(x+y) + r = a so by definition a mod m = r as wellConverse:

a mod m = b mod m => a = mx + r and b = my + r 0≤r<m

=> a-b = mx + r - my - r => a-b = m(x-y)

=> m | a-b which is equivalent to a ≡ b(mod m)
 
This proof was difficult but I think I'm done proving it now. I'm reading Rosens discrete math book rn. Do you recommend giving a proof for every theorem even if I'm not asked to do so?
 
r0bHadz said:
This proof was difficult but I think I'm done proving it now. I'm reading Rosens discrete math book rn. Do you recommend giving a proof for every theorem even if I'm not asked to do so?

Yes, the proof looks correct.

I don't know Rosen's book, so I'm not sure. Generally, you should do at most what the book asks. Anything extra might be useful, but it also takes more time.
 
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