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A question on wave-particle duality

  1. Apr 22, 2008 #1


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    Electrons are said to exhibit wave-particle duality because depending on the method of observation it acts as either a particle or wave.

    But according to De Broglie waves: A particle of mass,m, moving with velocity,v, acts like a wave of wavelength,[itex]\lambda[/itex]. Where [itex]\lambda = \frac{h}{mv}[/itex].
    But if this is true, then why doesn't everything exhibit wave-particle duality?
  2. jcsd
  3. Apr 23, 2008 #2
    AFAIK everything does. as m increases [itex]\lambda[/itex] is smaller.
  4. Apr 26, 2008 #3

    Ken G

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    Right, everything does, and that's why it has been argued that "wave/particle duality" is a kind of historical misnomer. The disunity was our own invention right from the start, so when you find unity in things, you only call it "duality" if you used to think they were different!
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