Are commuting observables necessary but not sufficient for causality?

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The discussion centers on the relationship between commuting observables and causality in quantum field theory (QFT). It establishes that while the microcausality principle is sufficient for causality, it is not a necessary condition, as indicated by the insights from Weinberg's "Quantum Theory of Fields, vol 1." The conversation highlights the importance of microcausality in ensuring the relativistic invariance of time-ordering symbols in perturbative QFT. Additionally, it emphasizes that while local QFTs adhere to microcausality, the existence of non-local yet causal relativistic quantum theories has not been entirely ruled out.

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  • Understanding of microcausality in quantum field theory
  • Familiarity with perturbative quantum field theory (QFT)
  • Knowledge of Poincaré invariance and unitarity in quantum mechanics
  • Basic concepts of time-ordering symbols in quantum mechanics
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  • Study Weinberg's "Quantum Theory of Fields, vol 1" for foundational concepts of causality in QFT
  • Research the implications of microcausality on the spin-statistics relation and CPT invariance
  • Explore the concept of non-local causal relativistic quantum theories
  • Learn about the role of time-ordering symbols in perturbative QFT and their Lorentz invariance
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Physicists, quantum field theorists, and researchers interested in the foundations of causality in quantum mechanics and the implications of microcausality in relativistic quantum theories.

nomadreid
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TL;DR
Two observables on events in a space-like separation must commute in order to ensure that causality is possible, otherwise one could be affected by the other before information could pass from one to the other. But on several sites it is stated that the vanishing of the commuter "defines" causality. I don't see the jump from possibility to necessity. Or is "causation" here defined as "possibility of causal link"?
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I think the "microcausality principle"/"locality" is a sufficient but not necessary condition for causality, Poincare invariance and unitarity of the S matrix. See Weinberg, Quantum Theory of Fields, vol 1. However, I have no example for a relativistic QT where causality is guaranteed by some other principle.

The paper by Donoghue is quite interesting. The conventional answer of course is that the directedness of time is indeed conventional and an additional assumption underlying all dynamical theories of physics. Other arrows of time than this "causality arrow of time" like the electrodynamical arrow of time (choosing retarded solutions in classical electrodynamics instead of advanced or "mixed" ones) or the thermodynamical/kinetic arrow of time (Boltzmann's H theorem) then just show that they are compatible with the conventional choice of the "causality arrow of time".

It's of course clear that the challenge of formulating a quantum theory of the gravitational interaction, which is so closely related (not to say "entangled") with the spacetime model of general relativity, one might have to rethink the meaning of causality and its realization in the theory, but nobody can say, how this turns out before there isn't such a consistent theory of "quantum gravity".
 
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Thank you, vanhees71, for your interesting answer, including your answer (if I understood correctly) turning my suspicion of "necessary but not sufficient" on its head into "sufficient but not necessary". It appears to me (but I am willing to be corrected) that this contradicts the assertion in the first answer in this post discussing causality
https://physics.stackexchange.com/q...-does-a-vanishing-commutator-ensure-causality
where the author says "...it is crucial that A and B must commute if they are spacelike separated."

I do have access to the book you recommended, and will study it (and other sources) about the ideas you mentioned. If you have any more specific pages or chapters that it would be best to concentrate on, that would also be appreciated. But perhaps just "the whole book" is the appropriate answer.
 
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Microcausality is particularly important for perturbative QFT since it ensures the relativistic invariance of the time-ordering symbol which appears in the interaction picture propagator.
 
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nomadreid said:
Thank you, vanhees71, for your interesting answer, including your answer (if I understood correctly) turning my suspicion of "necessary but not sufficient" on its head into "sufficient but not necessary". It appears to me (but I am willing to be corrected) that this contradicts the assertion in the first answer in this post discussing causality
https://physics.stackexchange.com/q...-does-a-vanishing-commutator-ensure-causality
where the author says "...it is crucial that A and B must commute if they are spacelike separated."

I do have access to the book you recommended, and will study it (and other sources) about the ideas you mentioned. If you have any more specific pages or chapters that it would be best to concentrate on, that would also be appreciated. But perhaps just "the whole book" is the appropriate answer.
In the above quoted posting they refer to the only successful real-world relativistic QFTs which all are local, and there indeed the microcausality condition is crucial, and its consequences like the spin-statistics relation and CPT invariance have always been confirmed by observations. However that doesn't mean that any other possibilities to construct non-local but still causal relativistic QTs have been disproven to exist.
 
HomogenousCow said:
Microcausality is particularly important for perturbative QFT since it ensures the relativistic invariance of the time-ordering symbol which appears in the interaction picture propagator.
Thank you, Homogenous Cow. I will have to unpack that to find out whether this has to do directly or only indirectly with my question.
 
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The idea is that when you're doing perturbation theory you often have expressions of the form $$\langle 0| T \{A(t)B(t')..\} |0 \rangle.$$To ensure the lorentz invariance of this expression, the time-ordering symbol must be invariant under boosts. For time-like separated events this is not an issue since the order of events is unique, however for space-like separated events this is no longer true and it would seem that ##T## is frame-dependent. Micro-causality solves this issue since if we have ##[A(t),B(t')]=0## for space-like separated events then the ordering is irrelevant and ##T## is thus lorentz invariant.

This is also why fermionic time-ordering is defined with a sign change, i.e. $$T \{\psi(t) \phi(t')\} = -\phi(t')\psi(t)$$ when ##t < t'##, since micro-causality requires that fermionic fields anti-commute.
 
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