can someone explain this interpretation to me? I read the article(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

**************** (my post got deleted for posting a non peer-reviewed article?)

but they only seem to discuss this interpretation with respect to entanglement. Other than that one case, it appears to be identical to the Copenhagen interpretation (i.e. single particles are still described by probability waves and the measurement made on one of the entangled particles is still completely random).

Is there any more detailed source on this interpretation?

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# Backward causation intepretation

Can you offer guidance or do you also need help?

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