1. Mar 28, 2010 #1

   dabeth

   

   Is it possible to prove Brouwer's Fixed Point Theorem (one-dimensional version) for intervals other than [-1,1]-->[-1,1], say [1,2]-->[0,3]? If so, how?

    

   dabeth, Mar 28, 2010
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3. Mar 28, 2010 #2

   Office_Shredder

   

   Staff Emeritus

   Science Advisor

   Gold Member

   For example, f(x)=x-1 is a map from [1,2] to [0,3] with no fixed point. The condition that the domain and codomain are the same space is very important

    

   Office_Shredder, Mar 28, 2010

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